Use the graph and the translation (x,y) (x+1,y+4) to answer parts a and b below

Answer:

i thinks it on a app

Step-by-step explanation:

yea the wedsite is

Answer:

1/216

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6 times 1/6 times 1/6

or 6^-3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

There is only 1 way you can throw 18 with 3 dice. There are 6 * 6 * 6 = 216 ways of throwing 3 dice. Only 1 will give you  18. So the answer is 1/216

Answer: graph is in picture

Graph the line using the slope and y-intercept, or two points

Slope: −1/2

x y

0. −2

2. −3

—————-————————————

the x- and y-intercepts :

x-intercept(s): (−4, 0)

y-intercept(s): (0, −2)

To find the x-intercept, substitute in 0 for y and solve for x. To find the y-intercept, substitute in 0 for x and solve for y.

Answer:

-8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-31 / 2 - 15 /7

-31 /2

= 15.5

-15/7

-2 .14

so the answer was.

-8/3

7kg=$5

represent the unknown with an x.

Therefore,

7kg=$5

x=$2

5÷2 is 2.5

7kg÷2.5=2.8

2.8kg of nuts for $2.8

Answer:

3/2(5/3) - 1 1/4 + 1 1/2

= 11/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Comparing the equivalent cost of Milk in Euro in the two countries, then we can conclude that Milk is a better value for money in Paris.

In other to make accurate comparison of the cost ; we need to using the same unit or milk and same currency value :

Cost of 1 pint of Milk in London :

1 pint = 0.58 pounds

The equivalent value of 1 pint of Milk in terms of Euro in London will be :

1 pound = 1.17 euro

0.58 pound = x

Cross multiply :

x = 1.17 × 0.58

x = 0.6786 euro

x = 0.68 euro

Hence, 1 pint of Milk cost 0.68 euro in London

Cost of 1 pint of Milk in Paris :

1 Litre = 1.76 pint

Hence,

1.76 pint = 1.05 euro

1 pint = c

1.76c = 1.05

c = 1.05 / 1.76

c = 0.597 euro

Hence, cost of 1 pint of Milk cost 0.60 euro in Paris

Therefore, since the cost of Milk in Paris cost less in Paris than in London, then Milk is a better value for money in Paris.

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Answer: 7/24 is the answer to this question

Answer:

9:05

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the text

hope this helps!!!!

Answer:

9:05

Step-by-step explanation:

:15- 10 =5

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

The distribution is symmetrical about  the y-axis.

The probability that z is greater than zero in a standard normal distribution is 0.5 or 50%.

The branch which deals with the occurrence of a random event is known as probability.

The area under the curve to the right of z = 0 is equal to the area under the curve to the left of z = 0. So the standard normal distribution is symmetric about the mean of zero

As the total area under the curve is equal to 1, each of these areas must be 0.5 or 50%.

In a standard normal distribution, the probability that z is greater than zero is 0.5, or 50%.

Therefore, the probability that z is greater than zero in a standard normal distribution is 0.5 or 50%.

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Answer:

[tex]\tan{90^{\circ}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Because [tex]\cos{x}[/tex] and [tex]\sin{x}[/tex] are defined for all [tex]x[/tex](i.e. their domain is [tex](-\infty, \infty)[/tex]), so they can never be undefined. However, [tex]\tan{90}=\sin{90}/\cos{90}=\sin{90}/0[/tex], which is undefined, because you can't divide by [tex]0[/tex]. So, the answer is [tex]\boxed{\tan{90^{\circ}}}[/tex]

Answer:

ya

Step-by-step explanation:

.

Answer:

A) 1/3

B) 3

Step-by-step explanation:

PART A: To calculate the scale factor reduction going from the large shape to the small shape you have to use the equation SF reduction = small/large. Using the figures on the side of the shape I need to have 3/9, which simplifies to get 1/3. This is the final answer.

PART B: To calculate the scale factor enlargement going from the small shape to the large shape you have to use the equation SF enlargement = large/small. Using the figures on the side of the shape I need to have 9/3, which simplifies to get 3. This is the final answer.

Answer:

85 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

Because it’s congruent to the other angle

Answer:

ok well I think it is 16

Step-by-step explanation:

because the parentheses first 2 x 2 x 2=8

then we have the outside of the parentheses 2, 8x2=16

so I think the answer is 16

Let's see

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail (2^3)^2[/tex]

So

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail 2^{3(2)}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail 2^6[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail 64[/tex]

Answer:

Answers in Bold

Step-by-step explanation:

Point Slope Form: (y - y₁) = m(x - x₁)

4. y - 4 = 0.8(x - 2)

   - To make it slope-intercept form

   y - 4 = 0.8x - 1.6

   y = 0.8x + 2.4

5. (Use slope finding formula) 4 - 10 / -2 - (-5) = 2

   y - 4 = 2(x + 2)

   - To make it slope-intercept form

   y - 4 = 2x + 4

   y = 2x + 8

Answer:

8/19 would be the answer to this question.

I hope this helped you! :)

Answer:

8/19

Step-by-step explanation:

Given x, the reciprocal is 1/x.

Given 2 3/8, we first rewrite this as an improper fraction:  19/8, and then invert this result:  8/19

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

cause an exponent and be any number

Answer:

18$

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex](6r - 3) \degree = 45\degree \\ 6r = 45 + 3 \\ 6r = 48 \\ r = \frac{48}{6} \\ \therefore \: r = 8 \\test \: 6(8) - 3 = 48 - 3 = 45\degree[/tex]

Put it to more points longer the question is so n00000

Answer:

$513.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Let h represent the number of hours he worked in a week

An auto mechanic earns $498.75 in 35 hours during the week. His pay is $2.50 more per hour on weekends.

Hence, his pay Is represented by equation:

$498.75 + $2.50 × x

If he works 6 hours on the weekend in addition to the 35 hours during the week

$498.75 + $2.50 × 6

= $498.75 + $15

= $513.75

Therefore, he earns $513.75

Answer:

[tex]\frac{35}{2}[/tex] - [tex]7n[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

7/1 − 3( 7/3n − 7/2 )

Anything divided by one gives itself.

7 - 3 ( [tex]\frac{7}{3}n - \frac{7}{2}[/tex])

Use the distributive property to multiply −3 by  [tex]\frac{7}{3}n - \frac{7}{2}[/tex])

7 - 3 × ([tex]\frac{7}{3}[/tex][tex]n[/tex] - 3 (-[tex]\frac{7}{2}[/tex])

Multiply −3 times [tex]\frac{7}{3}[/tex]

7 - 7n - 3 (-[tex]\frac{7}{2}[/tex])

Express -3 (-[tex]\frac{7}{2}[/tex]) as a single fraction.

7 - 7n + [tex]\frac{-3(-7)}{2}[/tex]

Multiply −3 and −7 to get 21.

7 - 7n + [tex]\frac{21}{2}[/tex]

Convert 7 to fraction [tex]\frac{14}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{14}{2}[/tex] - 7n +  [tex]\frac{21}{2}[/tex]

Since [tex]\frac{14}{2}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{21}{2}[/tex] have the same denominator, add them by adding their numerators.

[tex]\frac{14 + 21}{2} - 7n[/tex]

Add 14 and 21 to get 35.

[tex]\frac{35}{2} - 7n[/tex]

Answer:-36

Step-by-step explanation:-3(-1)-12

so negative times negative is positive so -3 x -1 is 3 so now positive times negative is negative so 3 x -12 is -36

The statement which best describes all the possible values of m is –12 < m < 4.

The turning point of a function is defined as the point where the graph of the function changes it's form. That is, an increasing graph changes to decreasing at that point and vice versa.

Given a table values of function.

Also, given that, one of the turning point is at x = -1.

At x = -1, f(x) = 4.

After it, the function decreases.

We can also see another turning point at x = 1.

At x = 1, f(x) = -4.

After x = 1, the function again increases to get the value f(x) = -2.

So x = -2 is not a turning point.

So the value of f(-2) = m lies in between -12 and 4.

Hence the correct option is B.

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Your question is incomplete. The complete question is given below.

If the table of the function contains exactly two potential turning points, one with an input value of –1, which statement best describes all possible values of m? m ≥ –12 –12 < m < 4 m ≤ 4 m ≥ 4 or m ≤ –12

I'm pretty sure the answer to y=−x. Write equation for (8,2) is y=x-6. The opposite of the x is -8, hence, (-8,2) is y=-x-6 is the answer

1. The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (-8, 2) is,

y = x + 10

2. The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (8, 2) is,

⇒ y = x - 6

What is Equation of line?

The equation of the line in slope-intercept form is expressed as:

y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)

where: m is the slope.

and (x₁, y₁) is the point on the line.

1. Given that;

Equation of the line as y = -x

Get the slope of the line,

y = -x

m = -1

Since, The required line is parallel to this line,

So, the required slope will be -1

Now, Get the required equation as,

y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)

y - 2 = 1 ( x - (-8) )

y - 2 = x + 8

y = x + 8 + 2

y = x + 10

Hence, The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (-8, 2) is,

⇒ y = x + 10

2.  Given that;

Equation of the line as y = -x

Point as (8, 2)

Get the slope of the line,

y = -x

m = -1

Since, The required line is parallel to this line,

So, the required slope will be -1

Now, Get the required equation as,

y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)

y - 2 = 1 ( x - 8 )

y - 2 = x - 8

y = x - 8 + 2

y = x - 6

Hence, The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (8, 2) is,

⇒ y = x - 6

Thus,

1. The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (-8, 2) is,

y = x + 10

2. The equation of the line which is parallel and goes through the point (8, 2) is,

⇒ y = x - 6

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Answer:

Tiffani has 182 cards left.

Step-by-step explanation:

Find one-third (1/3) of 273:

1/3 x 273 = 91

Therefore, she sells 91 cards.

273 - 91 = 182 cards left

Hope this helps :)