1. The components of energy balance include activities and diet. It should be noted that activities are forms of exercise while diet has to do with food eaten that gives energy.
2. Moderate physical activity requires less energy than vigorous physical activity.
3. An example of moderate physical activity in the physical activity pyramid is clapping and an example of vigorous physical activity is playing football.
How to explain the information?Energy intake, energy expenditure, and energy storage are the three fundamental elements of energy balance. Only when energy intake is more than energy expenditure during a specific time period does body weight alter. Humans consume protein, carbohydrates, fats, and alcoholic beverages as sources of energy.
Activities that are comparable in intensity to brisk walking or biking are considered to be moderate physical activity. Large increases in breathing or heart rate are produced by vigorous physical activity, such as jogging, aerobic dancing, or climbing hills on a bicycle.
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The fusiform face area (ffa) in the brain is often damaged in patients with? a. broca's aphasia. b. prosopagnosia. c. alzheimer's disease. d. wernicke's aphasia.
Broca's aphasia affects the frontal lobe of the brain. Thus, option a is the correct answer.
What is aphasia?Aphasia is a condition in which speech or verbal communication is affected. The person experiences difficulty in writing and understanding as well.
Aphasia results due to damage in the frontal lobe of cerebrum which is responsible for speech, recognition, memory and emotions. Injury, stroke, infection in the brain or some tumours can also lead to aphasia.
Aphasia can be of three types:
Broca's aphasia - In this condition, the patient experiences partial loss in speech or not able to speak right words at right time.Wernicke's aphasia - The person can speak broken sentences or limited words in this condition.Global aphasia - This form severely affects speech and language in a person due to multiple or severe brain injury.Aphasia can be managed through speech and language therapy.
Thus, aphasia can be considered as a language disorder.
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An adult patient has been hospitalized with thrombocytopenia with a platelet count of 8000/mm 3. what action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
The action by the healthcare professional most appropriately is to recommend the patient not to get out of bed without assistance.
What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?Lower than 150,000/mm3 platelet counts indicate thrombocytopenia.
It is possible for spontaneous bleeding to occur at a platelet count of 8,000/mm3, which would be disastrous if it happened in the brain.
To reduce the risk of falls, the medical practitioner should encourage the patient not to get out of bed on their own.
Only platelets require replacement, therefore whole blood is not required.
Heparin wouldn't be given to the patient because it would increase the likelihood of bleeding.
Adults typically have between 150,000 and 350,000 platelets per milliliter.
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Compare the two components of Energy Balance. (Activity and Diet)
By activity and diet exercisers start to experience less desire for fattening foods.
Briefing :When energy intake exceeds energy expenditure, there is a positive energy balance.
When energy intake is lower than energy expenditure, the energy balance is negative.
What is Energy Balance?Calories are also referred to as "energy." Your energy balance is the ratio of calories burned through physical activity to calories consumed through eating and drinking. What you consume gives you energy. Energy Out is what you expend during physical activity.
What affects energy balance?About 20 to 30 percent of the body's total energy output is used up during physical activity. The amount of energy used during physical activity varies depending on its intensity and duration. It is also influenced by the person performing the activity's age, gender, height, and weight.
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If you are filing your tax return as an individual, you will need to itemize your taxes if ..
A)the sum of your deductible contributions is less than $300.
B)the sum of your deductible contributions exceeds $300.
C)you don’t have any deductible contributions.
D)you donated to a religious institution.
You will need to itemize your taxes if the sum of your deductible contributions exceeds $300.
B) the sum of your deductible contributions exceeds $300.What is the value needed to detail?If the expenses you deduct are greater than the standard deduction (for the tax year they are: $12,950 for singles and marrieds separately, $25,900 for jointly married and $19,400 for heads of household), then you must consider declaring.
When should an individual declare his deductions?You must declare your deductions if your allowed declared deductions are greater than your standard deduction or if you need to itemize deductions because you cannot use the standard deduction.
With this information, we can conclude that It basically serves to inform the income that has been received, whether taxable or non-taxable. That is, even if you do not have to pay anything, it is essential to declare them.
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Answer:
Unit 4 Lesson 3 quick check
Explanation:
1) B exceeds $300
2) B deduct $300
3) A Internal Rev. Service
4) D retail
5) C won't lose money
A client who had a cholecystectomy has a t-tube for drainage. the nurse measures the amount of bile drainage from the t tube at the end of each shift. how should the nurse record the drainage?
The nurse should record the T-tube biliary drainage on a separate document from the discharge record.
Why should this be done?Because the T-tube biliary drainage record cannot be confused with other records.Because the joining of the T-tube biliary drainage record and other records may lead to incorrect conclusions about the individual.A hospitalized patient may need different drainages that will provide data on urine, bile, and the amount of water in the body, among others that are essential for the optimization of treatment.
For this reason, drainage measurements should be recorded in different documents, avoiding the confusion of data that would lead to incorrect conclusions about the patient.
An example of this is the combination of T-tube biliary drainage data with urine drainage, which can provide incorrect information about the number of salts in the patient's body.
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Math problems are solved in the? a. frontal lobes. b. parietal lobes. c. association areas. d. corpus callosum.
Which situation could most likely put you at risk for a physical injury?
OA. Getting between seven and nine hours of sleep per night
OB. Drinking tap water
OC. Eating all your meals at restaurants
D. Falling asleep while driving
SUBIT
Answer:
D is the answer
Infant formula and diapers provide _____ benefits and satisfy a customer need. multiple choice question.
Any product that serves serve functional utility to a customer, serves their need or requirement. Thus, Infant formula and diapers provide functional benefits and satisfy a customer need.
What is an infant formula?An infant formula is the milk in the powdered form. It is given to infants either by birth or after few months. Such infants are called 'formula fed infants'.
Infant formula is required in the cases where the mother is not able to completely breast feed an infant.
When the infants are born underweight or with some nutritional deficiency, then infant formula is considered as an ideal substitute.
Infant formula are scientifically designed keeping in mind all the nutritional requirements of an infant. It also meets the energy requirements of an infant.
Infant formula support the healthy growth of an infant.
They are preferred as they contain less composition of whey as compared to other animal milk and hence suitable for easy digestion in babies.
Thus, infant formula is a good choice and equally safe for infants for consumption.
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5. How is Alzheimer's disease diagnosed?
O
O
Full medical exam
Cognitive testing
By observing what the person does
Through lab and imaging tests
The dod's (department of defense) fire inspector course was orginally developed by the air force in 1967 and reduced fire loss across the air force by an estimated ____ percent over the next 10 years.
The dod's (department of defense) fire inspector course was originally developed by the air force in 1967 and reduced fire loss across the air force by an estimated 80 percent over the next 10 years.
What is Air Force?The branch of the national armed forces that predominantly engages in aerial combat is known as the air force, in the broadest sense. In contrast to an army or navy, it is the department of a country's armed forces that is in charge of aerial warfare. Usually, air forces are in charge of seizing control of the air, executing tactical and strategic bombing operations, and supporting land and naval troops, frequently via close air support and aerial surveillance.
A tactical air force, sometimes known as a numbered air force, is an operational structure that may be a component of a national air national guard or may be made up of several air elements from allies.
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A child with sickle cell crisis is being discharged. as part of discharge teaching to prevent further crisis, what should the nurse advise the parent to do?
A child with sickle cell crisis is being discharged. as part of discharge teaching to prevent further crisis, the nurse should advise the parent to do encourage the child to drink lots of liquids.
A sickle cell crisis is pain that may begin suddenly and last many hours to many days. It happens once sickled red blood cells block tiny blood vessels that carry blood to your bones. you would possibly have pain in your back, knees, legs, arms, chest or abdomen. The pain is throbbing, sharp, uninteresting or stabbing.
Child with sickle cell crisis ought to get all suggested vaccinations, together with the diplococcus, flu, coronavirus (COVID-19), and meningococcal vaccines. B vitamin supplements, which may facilitate youngsters build new red blood cells. Medicines to assist manage pain once it happens.
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hellp im in a test and the teacher is is kinda suspicious of mee hheellpppp
According to the social-cognitive theorists, a person's response to life events is determined by the quality of the social environment (D).
What is the social-cognitive theory?The social-cognitive theory explains how personal experiences, other people's conduct, and environmental circumstances affect a person's health behaviors.
The social-cognitive theory, which was started as the social learning theory by Albert Bandura, believes that humans learn behaviour through observational learning.
This theory assumes that changes in the environment will automatically lead to changes in the person.
Therefore, according to the social-cognitive theorists, a person's response to life events is determined by the quality of the social environment.
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Question 1 (5 points)
What was the major problem that led to the establishment of the Association of
Record Librarians of North America (arena)?
The Association of Record Librarians of North America was founded by the American College of Surgeons in 1928 with the goal of "raising the quality of medical notes in hospitals and other healthcare institutions."
1928 to 1938: Association of Record Librarians of North America. For the benefit of the patients, healthcare professionals, and the hospital, a great health record administration calls for sufficient attention to be paid to its maintenance and conservation. The five rules of library science and their applicability to the management of a health records library are examined in this essay. A distinction between a history and a medical record was made in the paper of Association of Record Librarians of North America. According to the study's findings, the five laws governing the management of health records should be as follows:
Medical files are for use Each person is responsible for his or her own health recordsEach health record has a userSave the user of health records timeThe library of health records is a living thing.Learn more about Association of Record Librarians of North America
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My teacher just embarrassed me to the whole class just because I want to sit in the front the reason is I have a bad eyesight. Now I don't feel like going to school after what happened...
Answer: that's not nice
Explanation:
they're very mean, it'll be ok
Answer:
AWWWWW
Explanation:
At which site would the nurse obtain a sterile urinalysis from a client with an indwelling catheter?
When a client with an indwelling catheter has to have a urine sample taken or a sterile urinalysis, the sample should be taken from the catheter itself using the designated specimen port.
What is a catheter?A catheter is a small, flexible tube used for a variety of medical procedures. In order to treat illnesses or carry out surgery, catheters are medical devices that can be inserted into the body. It is possible to customize catheters for cardiovascular, urological, gastrointestinal, neurovascular, and ophthalmic applications by changing the material or altering the manufacturing process. Catheterization is the action of putting a catheter in.
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What is a group of healthcare organizations that collectively provides a full range of coordinated health-related services?
An integrated Delivery System is a group of healthcare organizations that collectively provides a full range of coordinated health-related services
What are healthcare organizations?Healthcare organizations are businesses that supply services to clinical experts including nurses, doctors, and pharmacists. Their main goal is to offer healthcare services at cheaper costs and in greater quantities so that a large number of members can have access to them.
A health system, also known as a health care system or a healthcare organization, is a grouping of individuals, organizations, and assets that provide health care services to fulfill the needs of certain populations.
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The nurse is teaching an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) about fire safety. which uap statement demonstrates that teaching has been effective?
The nurse is teaching an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about fire safety and the UAP statement which demonstrates that teaching has been effective is "I will rescue clients from harm before doing anything else."
Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) is intended to produce overarching principles for apply in things across the time of care wherever registered nurses delegate tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel.
Some fire safety rules that UAP should keep in his mind are switching on the fire alarm, follow the fire escape route, use fire extinguisher and priotize the patient safety.
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Credentialing is defined as providing certified documents showing that an individual is entitled to recognition or has a right to perform certain functions or actions. True or false
It is true that credentialing is defined as providing certified documents showing that an individual is entitled to recognition or has a right to perform certain functions or actions.
Credentialing is a important method for health care establishments. In easy terms, credentialing is that the method of assessing the tutorial qualifications and clinical follow history of a health care supplier.
A certified document is also needed for official government or court functions and for industrial functions. It avoids the owner of necessary documents jilting possession of these documents which could mean a risk of their loss or harm.
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Who would be the most appropriate professional to consult regarding nutrition information?
The most appropriate professional to consult regarding nutrition information is a registered dietitian.
What is nutrition ?
In terms of nutrition, a balanced diet should be consumed. You can get the nutrition and energy you need from food and drink. Making better eating decisions may be made simpler for you if you understand these nutrition terminology.
Dietitians are authorities on nutrition and food. For those who may be afflicted by illnesses like diabetes, obesity, cancer, heart disease, kidney disease, gastro-intestinal ailments, and food allergies, they offer advice on how to manage diets and nutrition properly.
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Which manifestations are related to target organ disease from hypertension?
Heart failure, renal failure and blood clots are some of the manifestations related to target organ from hypertension.
What is hypertension?Hypertension is a medical condition in which the blood pressure raises. Both systolic and diastolic blood pressure are found to be elevated.
In hypertension the blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg whereas ideally it should be 120/80 mm Hg. Blood pressure, if shoots up to 180/120 mm Hg, requires critical medical care.
In this condition, the blood exerts the pressure against the walls of the arteries. Constriction or narrowing of the arteries also leads to hypertension.
Hypertension results from obesity, high levels of cholesterol in the poor, poor heart health, stress and poor lifestyle.
The patients with hypertension take blood thinners called statins as medication.
Hypertension can lead to serious complications and can be life threatening.
Thus, hypertension needs medical attention.
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✓ Saved
Everyone knows what they want to study and major in when they get to college?
True
False
Answer:
Explanation: False! Many people are still deciding there first year of college what they actually want to be since you just take core classes.
Hope this helps.
Answer:
It would be False
Explanation:
When they look for a college most of the time they don't know if the college is right for them when they get accepted in the college they still could have not decided what they want to study.
I hope it helps you!
~XxBellsAloneXx~
1. Which decision making style involves letting other people make decisions for
you?
A.
reactive
B. proactive
C.
inactive
D.
all of the above
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
Because Proactive:(of a person or action) creating or controlling a situation rather than just responding to it after it has happened.
"employers must take a proactive approach to equal pay".
A patient presents to the clinic with hard earwax in both ear canals. instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen include?
The instructions to be followed are: 1. Twice every day, wipe the ear canal with a moistened cotton swab (Q-tip).
2. While taking a shower, pour tap water into both ears.
3. With each bath, spray hydrogen peroxide into the ears.
4. Until the canals are clear, inject Debrox (carbamide peroxide) twice day.
Until the ear canals are clear, inject carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily.
What causes ear wax?The glands on the skin of your outer ear canal produce the wax in your ears. These tubes contain wax and small hairs that capture dust and other particles that could harm your eardrum and other deeper structures.
Most people’s ear openings regularly receive a little amount of earwax.
Is having wax in your ears healthy?Earwax serves a number of vital functions. It prevents dry, itchy ears by first hydrating and protecting the skin of the ear canal.
Second, it has unique compounds that protect against infections that could damage the skin lining the ear canal.
In addition, it serves as a barrier between the outside environment and the eardrum.
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The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following blunt trauma to the anterior neck should make you most suspicious for a?
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following blunt trauma to the anterior neck should make you most suspicious for a fractured larynx.
Subcutaneous emphysema happens once air gets into tissues beneath the skin. This most frequently happens within the skin covering the chest or neck, however can even occur in alternative elements of the body.
Neck trauma is generally divided into 2 classes, blunt and penetrating injury. Blunt trauma may end in crushed larynx, tracheal disruption, expanding hematoma, esophageal leak. Penetrating trauma-may end in injury to major vascular structures, pharynx, larynx, trachea, esophagus.
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You notice that your patient constantly has a qrs complex measurement of greater than 0.12. the most likely reason for this is?
If QRS complex measurement of greater than 0.12 indicates delayed ventricular conduction.
QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, It is from beginning of q wave to the end of S wave.QRS complex duration is 0.06-0.10 sec = 60-100 m sec =1.5-2.5 small squresQRS complex slightly reduced during exercise in response to increased cardiac conduction velocity.Deflection of QRS Complex consist of 3 deflection 1) q wave (1st negative deflection) 2) r wave (1st positive deflection) 3) s wave (2nd negative deflection)Normal QRS complex conduction has progressed normally from the bundle of His, through the right and left bundle branches, and through the Purkinje network OR Produced by normal depolarization of the ventriclesTo know more about QRS complex visit : https://brainly.com/question/10842164
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A fracture of the ankle where both the distal ends of the tibia and fibula broken is called a?
A pilon fracture is a specific kind of break that affects the ankle joint's weight-bearing surface and develops near the base of the tibia (shinbone). Another bone in the lower leg, the fibula, is usually shattered with this kind of injury as well.
Bone healing/fracture takes roughly six weeks. Ligaments or other connective tissue may also take longer to recover. Until the bone heals, patients usually cannot bear any weight after surgery for 4 to 6 weeks. Patients are put on a pain control program that reduces the amount of opioid medication they require. Patients spend 90% of the day elevating the limb in a splint for the first few weeks. The sutures are taken out after 10 to 14 days, and patients are often put into a detachable boot. Patients can now begin moving their ankle and take a shower thanks to this. X-rays are obtained at the six-week appointment. Patients are subsequently permitted to start weight-bearing and start physical therapy, presuming the bone has healed properly. Patients will typically receive therapy for six weeks, or longer if necessary.
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An ancient ruler suffered from terrible pain in his joints. His physician felt that the pain indicated that the spirits representing his organs, such as his heart, liver, lungs, and spleen, were out of alignment. The physician prescribed treatments to realign the spirits in order to make his ruler feel better. What ancient civilization was this ruler MOST likely a part of? (1 point) a.Rome b. Greece c. China d. Spain
Answer:
Ancient Greece
Explanation:
Greek physicians transitioned from relying on supernatural intervention for healing to using realistic, natural remedies. Some of their theories are still influencing modern scientific and medical thought.
What is Greece ancient civilization?Their comprehension of the evolution will help them better comprehend the world and the people who dwell in it.
Understanding how and why history has developed and taken the form it has helps us understand ancient civilizations.
Hippocrates, who is referred regarded as “the father of medicine,” was the most well-known and likely the most significant medical person in Ancient Greece.
Medicine had not yet developed into a distinct field in early Ancient Greece. Over time, experts in different professions applied their knowledge to the field of health, and they founded the discipline of medicine.
Therefore, ancient civilization was this ruler, most likely a part of Greece.
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A lateral finger projection obtained with the finger in a 45-degree pa oblique projection demonstrates?
The answer is Option 2 and 3 (Refer to the complete question provided at the end). More midshaft concavity and twice as much soft tissue.
DescriptionOne of three views in the finger series, the finger lateral view is a common projection for radiography evaluation of the fingers.
The lateral index and middle fingers make up this division. The lateral of the ring and little fingers.
Patient’s positionThe patient is cross-legged at the end of the table. Bend the elbow and place the arm on the table. It is ideal to have the entire upper arm, elbow, and forearm lying on the table.
Position: Twist the wrist to place the finger so that its side is in contact with or as close to the image receptor (IR) as possible.
The patient is made to sit next to the table.
To keep the lateral portion of the index finger in contact with the cassette, the hand is first pronated and then more medially rotated.
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Complete answer:
A lateral finger projection obtained with the finger in a 45-degree pa oblique projection demonstrates.
1. equal soft tissue width on both sides of the phalanges.
2. more midshaft concavity on one side of the phalanges than on the opposite side.
3. twice as much soft tissue on one side of the phalanges as on the opposite side.
4. convexity on one side of the phalanges and concavity on the opposite side.
Which health care professional uses such methods as behavior therapy, group therapy, biofeedback, and cognitive retraining?
Clinical psychologist is the health care professional who use such types of methods.
What is clinical psychology?
The study of clinical psychology involves using psychological theories and methods in "clinical" situations. Clinical psychology is "the study of persons, via observation or experimentation, with the purpose of fostering change," according to one short definition. Their line of work is referred to as "clinical" since it entails interacting with and watching patients in clinics and other relevant settings. However, the practitioners could also collaborate with a group of other social or health workers. Clinicians see patients, families, and other groups in facilities including hospitals, schools, and counseling centers. They work at veteran service offices and community health clinics.
So, Clinical psychology is the health care professional who uses such methods as behavior therapy, group therapy, biofeedback, and cognitive retraining.
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Which piece of equipment is most helpful in determining airway obstruction in the client with asthma?
A peak flow meter piece of equipment is most helpful in determining airway obstruction in a client with asthma.
The best early indicator of an asthma attack is a peak flow meter. Most episodes start out gradually, and a decrease in peak flow can let the client know it's time to start taking medicine before any symptoms actually show up. To manage symptoms, use an inhaler and nebulizer. In particular, after surgery, an incentive spirometer is used for lung expansion.
Lung damage is a side effect of asthma. Repeated episodes of coughing, dyspnea, chest tightness, and wheezing are also brought on by it. By taking medication and avoiding the triggers that can set off an attack, asthma can be managed. Additionally, you need to get rid of any environmental irritants that might aggravate your asthma.
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