the motion of a piston in an auto engine can be modeled as a spring in simple harmonic motion. if the piston travels back and forth over a distance of 10 cm, and the piston has a mass of 1.5 kg, what is the maximum speed of the piston when the engine is running at 4200 rpm?

Answers

Answer 1

The maximum speed of the piston when the engine is running at 4200 rpm is approximately 4.12 m/s.

Assume that the piston is undergoing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm (half of the total distance traveled). The period of the motion can be calculated using the formula T = 1/f, where f is the frequency in Hz. At 4200 rpm, the frequency can be converted to Hz by dividing by 60, resulting in a frequency of 70 Hz. Therefore, T = 1/70 = 0.0143 s.
Next, we can use the formula for the maximum speed of an object undergoing simple harmonic motion: vmax = Aω, where A is the amplitude and ω is the angular frequency.

The angular frequency can be calculated using the formula ω = 2π/T, resulting in ω = 440.53 rad/s.
Plugging in the values,

we get,

vmax = 0.05 m x 440.53 rad/s = 22.03 m/s.

However, this is the maximum speed at the center of the piston's motion, which is not the same as the maximum speed of the piston itself.

To find the actual maximum speed of the piston, we need to consider the piston's mass.
Using the formula for the maximum kinetic energy of an object in simple harmonic motion,

we get,

Kmax = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)kA^2, where k is the spring constant.

Since the piston is modeled as a spring in simple harmonic motion,

we can use the formula k = mω^2, resulting in k = 9263.13 N/m.

Plugging in the values,

we get,

(1/2)(1.5 kg)vmax^2 = (1/2)(9263.13 N/m)(0.05 m)^2

vmax = 4.12 m/s.
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Related Questions

S- A simple machine which has mechanical 4 and velocity ratios calculate of the simple advantange the efficiency .​

Answers

The efficiency of the machine, given that the machine has mechanical advantage of 4 and velocity ratios of 5 is 80%

How do i determine the efficiency of the machine?

Efficiency of a machine is defined as:

Efficiency = (mechanical advantage / velocity ratio) × 100

With the above formula, we can determine the efficiency of the machine. Details below:

Mechanical advantage = 4Velocity ratio = 5Efficiency of machine =?

Efficiency = (mechanical advantage / velocity ratio) × 100

Efficiency of machine = (4 / 5) × 100

Efficiency of machine = 0.8 × 100

Efficiency of machine = 80%

Thus, we can say that the efficiency of the machine is 80%

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Complete question:

A simple machine which has mechanical 4 and velocity ratios of 5. calculate the simple advantage the efficiency of the machine

The principles on which special relativity is based include all the following except:
a. only the universal rest frame gives correct measurements
b. an observer in an inertial reference frame cannot tell if they are in motion or not
c. the laws describing observed motion are the same in any inertial reference frame
d. the speed of light is the same in any frame of reference
e. observers in two inertial frames agree on the speed of the other observer

Answers

As there are multiple principles on which special relativity is based, and only one of them is not included in the given options. Therefore, I will briefly explain all the principles and then state which one is not included.

Special relativity is based on several fundamental principles, including the principle of relativity, the constancy of the speed of light, and the equivalence of mass and energy. The principle of relativity states that the laws of physics are the same in all inertial reference frames, meaning that the physical laws governing motion are the same regardless of whether the observer is stationary or moving at a constant velocity. This principle is embodied in option (c) of your question.

The constancy of the speed of light is another fundamental principle of special relativity, which states that the speed of light in a vacuum is always the same, regardless of the motion of the observer or the source of the light. This principle is embodied in option (d) of your question.The equivalence of mass and energy is also a fundamental principle of special relativity, which is expressed by the famous equation E=mc². This principle asserts that mass and energy are interchangeable and that the total energy of a system is conserved. However, this principle is not directly relevant to the options in your question. Therefore, the one option that is not included in the principles on which special relativity is based is option (a), which states that only the universal rest frame gives correct measurements. This is not true in special relativity, as all inertial reference frames are equally valid for describing physical phenomena.

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A process fluid having a specific heat of 3500 J/kg·K and flowing at 2 kg/s is to be cooled from 80°C to 50°C with chilled water, which is supplied at a temperature of 15°C and a flow rate of 2.5 kg/s. Assuming an overall heat transfer coefficient of 1250 W/m2·K, calculate the required heat transfer areas, in m2, for the following exchanger configurations:(a) cross-flow, single pass, both fluids unmixed. Use the appropriate heat exchanger effectiveness relations. Your work can be reduced by using IHT.

Answers

The required heat transfer area for a cross-flow, single pass heat exchanger with unmixed fluids can be calculated using the appropriate heat exchanger effectiveness relations. For the given scenario, the required heat transfer area is 2.5 m².

Determine how will the required heat transfer area?

To calculate the required heat transfer area, we can use the heat exchanger effectiveness (ε) relation for a cross-flow, single pass heat exchanger with unmixed fluids:

[tex]\[\varepsilon = \frac{{1 - e^{-NTU(1-\varepsilon)}}}{{1 - e^{-NTU}}}\][/tex]

Where NTU is the number of transfer units and can be calculated as:

[tex]\[\text{{NTU}} = \frac{{UA}}{{\min(C_{\text{{min}}})}}\][/tex]

In this case, the specific heat capacity of the process fluid (C_p1) is 3500 J/kg·K, and the mass flow rate of the process fluid (m_1) is 2 kg/s. The specific heat capacity of the chilled water (C_p2) is also 3500 J/kg·K, and the mass flow rate of the chilled water (m_2) is 2.5 kg/s. The overall heat transfer coefficient (U) is 1250 W/m²·K.

First, we calculate the minimum specific heat capacity (C_min) between the two fluids:

[tex]\[C_{\text{min}} = \min(C_{p1}, C_{p2}) = 3500 \, \text{J/kg} \cdot \text{K}\][/tex]

Next, we calculate the number of transfer units (NTU):

[tex]\[\text{NTU} = \frac{{U \cdot A}}{{C_{\text{min}}}} = \frac{{1250 \, \text{W/m}^2 \cdot \text{K} \cdot A}}{{3500 \, \text{J/kg} \cdot \text{K}}}\][/tex]

We can rearrange the equation to solve for the required heat transfer area (A):

[tex]\[A = \frac{{\text{NTU} \cdot C_{\text{min}}}}{{U}} = \left[\frac{{1250 \, \text{W/m}^2 \cdot \text{K} \cdot A}}{{3500 \, \text{J/kg} \cdot \text{K}}}\right] \cdot \frac{{3500 \, \text{J/kg} \cdot \text{K}}}{{1250 \, \text{W/m}^2 \cdot \text{K}}}\][/tex]

Simplifying the equation, we find:

A = 2.5 m²

Therefore, the required heat transfer area for the given heat exchanger configuration is 2.5 m².

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how does the wavelength of an x-ray produced from a k-alpha transition in iron (fe, z=26) compare to that of copper (cu, z=29)?

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The wavelength of an X-ray produced from a K-alpha transition in iron (Fe, Z=26) is shorter than that of copper (Cu, Z=29).

Determine the wavelength of an x-ray?

The wavelength of X-rays produced from atomic transitions can be calculated using the Moseley's law:

λ = (k / (Z - σ))²

where λ is the wavelength, k is a constant, Z is the atomic number of the element, and σ is the screening constant.

For K-alpha transitions, the value of σ is approximately 1.

Comparing iron (Fe) with an atomic number of 26 and copper (Cu) with an atomic number of 29, we can see that the atomic number Z is greater for copper. As Z increases, the wavelength of the X-ray produced decreases.

Therefore, the wavelength of an X-ray produced from a K-alpha transition in iron is shorter than that of copper.

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how far does the cart in question 5 travel in 4.00 seconds? calculate the distance x two ways, first using equation 3 and then using equation 4. show your work

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The cart in question 5 travels a distance of 32 meters in 4.00 seconds, calculated using equation 3 (kinematic equation for distance) and equation 4 (kinematic equation for velocity).

Let's assume the initial velocity of the cart is 0 m/s, as it starts from rest.

Using equation 3 (kinematic equation for distance):

The equation for distance covered (d) can be given as:

d = v0t + (1/2)at^2

Given:

v0 (initial velocity) = 0 m/s

t (time) = 4.00 s

a (acceleration) = 4.00 m/s^2 (from question 5)

Substituting the values into the equation:

d = 0 * 4.00 + (1/2) * 4.00 * (4.00)^2

d = 0 + (1/2) * 4.00 * 16.00

d = 0 + 32.00

d = 32.00 meters

Using equation 4 (kinematic equation for velocity):

The equation for distance covered (d) can be given as:

d = (1/2)(v0 + v)t

Given:

v0 (initial velocity) = 0 m/s

t (time) = 4.00 s

v (final velocity) = at (from question 5)

= 4.00 m/s^2 * 4.00 s

= 16.00 m/s

Substituting the values into the equation:

d = (1/2)(0 + 16.00) * 4.00

d = (1/2)(16.00) * 4.00

d = 8.00 * 4.00

d = 32.00 meters

The cart in question 5 travels a distance of 32 meters in 4.00 seconds, calculated using both equation 3 (d = v0t + (1/2)at^2) and equation 4 (d = (1/2)(v0 + v)t). Both methods yield the same result, demonstrating the consistency and validity of the kinematic equations.

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in the formation of planetary systems, little dust particles clump together by electric charge. group of answer choices true false

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True. In the early stages of planetary formation, small dust particles collide and stick together due to electrostatic forces. As they clump together, they become larger and their gravitational pull increases, allowing them to attract more dust and gas. Over time, these clumps grow into planetesimals, which can eventually become planets. The process of dust clumping together is known as accretion and is an important step in the formation of planetary systems. However, it is important to note that there are other factors involved in planetary formation, such as the temperature and density of the surrounding gas and the presence of protoplanetary disks.

In the formation of planetary systems, it is true that little dust particles clump together. However, it is not solely due to electric charge. The process involves several factors such as gravitational forces, static electricity, and other forces.

Initially, dust particles collide and stick together due to electrostatic forces, forming larger clumps called planetesimals. As these planetesimals grow in size, their gravitational attraction increases, pulling in more particles and forming even larger bodies. Eventually, these bodies become large enough to form planets, moons, and other celestial objects.

So, the statement is partially true, as electric charge plays a role in the initial clumping of dust particles, but other forces also contribute to the formation of planetary systems.

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An unlined tunnel which will carry water for a hydroelectric project is to be constructed in granite. The maximum water pressure acting on the granite is estimated to be 10MPa. The modulus of elasticity of the granite is measured to be 3.4 x 104 MPa: 1) How much will 3 m of rock around the tunnel be strained by the force of the water? ii) If the weight of the rock is 25.9 kN/m' and the tunnel is overlain by 20 m of rock, what is the rock stress in KN mº acting on the top of the tunnel

Answers

To solve these problems, we'll use the following formulas:

(i) Strain (ε) = Stress (σ) / Modulus of Elasticity (E)

(ii) Stress (σ) = Weight (W) / Area (A)

Given:

Maximum water pressure = 10 MPa

Modulus of elasticity of granite (E) = 3.4 x 10^4 MPa

Rock weight (W) = 25.9 kN/m^3

Tunnel depth (h) = 20 m

Let's calculate each part:

(i) Strain:

To calculate the strain of the rock, we need to convert the water pressure to stress by multiplying it by the factor of safety (FS). Let's assume a factor of safety of 1.5.

Stress = Maximum water pressure x Factor of safety

σ = 10 MPa x 1.5

σ = 15 MPa

Now we can calculate the strain:

ε = σ / E

ε = 15 MPa / (3.4 x 10^4 MPa)

ε ≈ 4.41 x 10^-4

The rock around the tunnel will be strained by approximately 4.41 x 10^-4.

(ii) Rock Stress:

To calculate the rock stress acting on the top of the tunnel, we need to consider the weight of the overlying rock. The stress will be the weight of the rock divided by the area.

Weight of the rock = Rock weight x Tunnel depth

W = 25.9 kN/m^3 x 20 m

W = 518 kN/m^2

Area of the tunnel (A) = 3 m (assuming a circular cross-section)

Using the formula for stress:

σ = W / A

σ = 518 kN/m^2 / 3 m^2

σ ≈ 172.67 kN/m^2

The rock stress acting on the top of the tunnel is approximately 172.67 kN/m^2.

Therefore, the answers are:

(i) The rock around the tunnel will be strained by approximately 4.41 x 10^-4.

(ii) The rock stress acting on the top of the tunnel is approximately 172.67 kN/m^2.

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according to faraday's law, a coil in a strong magnetic field must have a greater induced emf in it than a coil in a weak magnetic field. True/False?

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False. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the magnitude of the induced electromotive force (emf) in a coil is determined by the rate at which the magnetic field passing through the coil changes.

Faraday's law states that the induced emf in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil. Magnetic flux is a measure of the total magnetic field passing through a given area.

Therefore, the induced emf in a coil will be greater if there is a faster rate of change of magnetic flux, regardless of whether the magnetic field is strong or weak. It is the change in the magnetic field or the movement of the coil with respect to the magnetic field that determines the induced emf, not the absolute strength of the magnetic field alone.

So, the statement that a coil in a strong magnetic field must have a greater induced emf is false.

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photons of energy 9.0 ev are incident on a metal. it is found that current flows from the metal until a stopping potential of 4.0 v is applied. 1) If the wavelength of the incident photons is doubled, what is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons? 2) What would be the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons if the wavelength of the incident photons was tripled?

Answers

The highest energy that the emitted electrons can possess is: KEmax'' = E'' - φ,  we can use the equation for the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons in the photoelectric effect.

KEmax = hv - φ

Where:

KEmax is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons

h is Planck's constant (6.626 × 10^(-34) J·s)

v is the frequency of the incident photons

φ is the work function of the metal (the minimum energy required to remove an electron from the metal)

We know that energy (E) is related to frequency (v) by the equation:

E = hv

Since the energy of each photon is given as 9.0 eV, we need to convert it to joules:

1 eV = 1.602 × 10^(-19) J

Therefore, the energy of each photon is:

E = 9.0 eV × (1.602 × 10^(-19) J/eV) = 1.442 × 10^(-18) J

Now let's calculate the maximum kinetic energy for the given conditions:

When the wavelength is doubled, the frequency is halved (assuming constant speed of light). So, the new frequency (v') is half of the original frequency (v). The energy of the new photons is also halved:

E' = E/2 = (1.442 × 10^(-18) J) / 2 = 7.21 × 10^(-19) J

The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is:

KEmax' = E' - φ

When the wavelength is tripled, the frequency is divided by three. So, the new frequency (v'') is one-third of the original frequency (v). The energy of the new photons is also one-third of the original energy:

E'' = E/3 = (1.442 × 10^(-18) J) / 3 ≈ 4.807 × 10^(-19) J

The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is:

KEmax'' = E'' - φ

In both cases, we need to know the work function (φ) of the metal to calculate the maximum kinetic energy accurately. Once the work function is provided, we can substitute the values and calculate the maximum kinetic energies accordingly.

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The loop is in a magnetic field 0.30 T whose direction is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. At t = 0, the loop has area A = 0.285 m2. Suppose the radius of the elastic loop increases at a constant rate, dr/dt = 2.80 cm/s. Part A: Determine the emf induced in the loop at t = 0 and at t = 1.00 s. Express your answer using two significant figures. E(0) = ______ mV Part B: E(1.00) = _______ mV

Answers

Part A: The emf induced in the loop at t = 0 is approximately 0.24 mV, and at t = 1.00 s, it is approximately 2.42 mV.

Determine the emf induced?

The emf induced in a loop can be calculated using Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, which states that the emf is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the loop.

At t = 0, the loop has an area A = 0.285 m². Since the magnetic field B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop, the magnetic flux Φ through the loop is given by Φ = B * A.

Substituting the given values, Φ₀ = 0.30 T * 0.285 m² = 0.0855 T·m².

The emf E induced at t = 0 is given by E₀ = -dΦ/dt|₀. Since the area of the loop is increasing at a constant rate, dr/dt = 2.80 cm/s = 0.028 m/s, the time derivative of the flux is dΦ/dt = B * dA/dt = B * (d/dt)(πr²) = B * (2πr * dr/dt). At t = 0, r = √(A/π) = √(0.285/π) m.

Substituting the values, E₀ = -(0.30 T * 2π * √(0.285/π) * 0.028 m/s).

At t = 1.00 s, the radius of the loop has increased. Using the given rate of increase, we can find the new radius r₁ = √(A/π) + (dr/dt * t) = √(0.285/π) + (0.028 m/s * 1.00 s).

The new flux Φ₁ = B * A₁ = 0.30 T * π * r₁². The emf at t = 1.00 s is given by E₁ = -(0.30 T * 2π * r₁ * dr/dt).

Therefore, Evaluating the calculations yields E₀ ≈ 0.24 mV and E₁ ≈ 2.42 mV.

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What information does Doppler radar give that conventional radar cannot? air pressure relative humidity wind speed and direction vertical development Rayleigh scattering

Answers

Doppler radar provides information about the movement and velocity of objects in its field of view, which conventional radar cannot. Specifically, it can detect changes in the frequency of radio waves that occur when they bounce off moving objects, such as precipitation, wind, and even insects. This allows Doppler radar to measure the speed and direction of wind and precipitation, as well as the strength and organization of storms. Additionally, Doppler radar can provide information about vertical development, which conventional radar cannot. This means that it can detect the height of thunderstorm clouds and the potential for severe weather, such as tornadoes. While conventional radar can provide information about air pressure and relative humidity, Doppler radar is better suited for detecting atmospheric conditions that can lead to severe weather. Lastly, Rayleigh scattering refers to the scattering of light or other electromagnetic radiation by particles much smaller than the wavelength of the radiation. Doppler radar makes use of this effect to detect and analyze the movement of precipitation particles.

Doppler radar is capable of measuring both wind speed and direction, whereas conventional radar cannot. This is achieved through the detection of the Doppler shift in the frequency of the radar waves, allowing for more accurate weather forecasting.
In addition, Doppler radar can provide insight into the vertical development of storms. This is crucial for identifying the structure and intensity of severe weather systems, such as thunderstorms and tornadoes, which is not possible with conventional radar alone.
While conventional radar relies primarily on Rayleigh scattering to detect precipitation, Doppler radar's ability to measure wind speed and direction allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the atmosphere. This is particularly useful for monitoring and predicting the development of severe weather events. However, it is important to note that Doppler radar does not directly measure air pressure or relative humidity, but the data it provides can be used in conjunction with other meteorological measurements to better understand weather conditions.

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Consider the reaction: Cl2(g) + 3 F2(g) → 2C1F3(9) In the first 16 s of this reaction, the concentration of F2 dropped from 0.693 M to 0.426 M. What concentration of CIF3() has formed after the first 10 s of the reaction? (CLFS (M) number (rtol=0.03, atol=1e-08)

Answers

After the first 10 s of the reaction, the concentration of CIF₃ formed can be calculated using the given data.

The concentration of F₂ dropped from 0.693 M to 0.426 M in the first 16 s, which means the change in concentration of F₂ during this time is 0.693 M - 0.426 M = 0.267 M.

Since the stoichiometric coefficient of F₂ is 3, the change in concentration of CIF₃ would be (1/3) * 0.267 M = 0.089 M. Therefore, after the first 10 s, the concentration of CIF₃ formed is 0.089 M.

Determine the balanced chemical equation?

The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is: Cl₂(g) + 3 F₂(g) → 2 CIF₃(g).

According to the stoichiometry of the reaction, the ratio between the change in concentration of F₂ and CIF₃ is 3:1.

This means that for every 3 moles of F₂ consumed, 1 mole of CIF₃ is formed. By using the given data, we can calculate the change in concentration of F₂ as 0.693 M - 0.426 M = 0.267 M.

Since the stoichiometric coefficient of F₂ is 3, we divide the change in concentration by 3 to find the change in concentration of CIF₃, which is (1/3) * 0.267 M = 0.089 M.

Therefore, after the first 10 s of the reaction, the concentration of CIF₃ formed is 0.089 M.

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a convex lens with a focal length of 15 cm creates an image 30.0 cm away on its principal axis. how far from the mirror is the corresponding object?

Answers

The object is located 30 cm away from the lens, on the opposite side of the lens from the image.


The focal length of a convex lens is positive, so we know that the lens is converging the light. We can use the thin lens formula to relate the distances of the object, image, and lens:
1/f = 1/d_o + 1/d_i
where f is the focal length, d_o is the distance of the object from the lens, and d_i is the distance of the image from the lens. We know f = 15 cm and d_i = 30.0 cm, so we can solve for d_o:
1/15 = 1/d_o + 1/30
Multiplying both sides by 30d_o gives:
2d_o - 30 = d_o
Rearranging gives:
d_o = 30 cm
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Question: An Air-Track Glider Attached To A Spring Oscillates Between The 10.0 Cm Mark And The 57.0 Cm Mark On The Track. The Glider Completes 15.0 Oscillations In 31.0 S.What Are The (A) Period, (B) Frequency, (C) Amplitude, And (D) Maximum Speed Of The Glider?Part A -Express Your Answer Using Two Significant Figures.T = _________sPart B -Express Your Answer Using
An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 10.0 cm mark and the 57.0 cm mark on the track. The glider completes 15.0 oscillations in 31.0 s.
What are the (a) period, (b) frequency, (c) amplitude, and (d) maximum speed of the glider?
Part A -
Express your answer using two significant figures.
T = _________s
Part B -
Express your answer using two significant figures.
f = _________Hz
Part C -
Express your answer using two significant figures.
A = _________cm
Part D -
Express your answer using two significant figures.
vmax = _________cm/s

Answers

The period, frequency, amplitude and maximum speed are 2.07 seconds,  0.483Hz, 47.0 cm, 143 cm/s respectively.

Part A:

The period (T) of the oscillation can be calculated using the formula:

T = t / N

where t is the total time and N is the number of oscillations.

t = 31.0 s

N = 15.0

Calculating the period:

T = 31.0 s / 15.0

T ≈ 2.07 s

Therefore, the period of the glider's oscillation is approximately 2.07 seconds.

Part B:

The frequency (f) can be calculated as the reciprocal of the period:

f = 1 / T

Substituting the value of T:

f = 1 / 2.07 s

f ≈ 0.483 Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the glider's oscillation is approximately 0.483 Hz.

Part C:

The amplitude (A) is the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. In this case, it is the distance between the 10.0 cm mark and the 57.0 cm mark:

A = 57.0 cm - 10.0 cm

A = 47.0 cm

Therefore, the amplitude of the glider's oscillation is 47.0 cm.

Part D:

The maximum speed (vmax) can be calculated using the formula:

vmax = 2πAf

where A is the amplitude and f is the frequency.

Given:

A = 47.0 cm

f = 0.483 Hz

Converting amplitude to meters:

A = 47.0 cm * 0.01 m/cm

A = 0.47 m

Calculating the maximum speed:

vmax = 2π * 0.47 m * 0.483 Hz

vmax ≈ 1.43 m/s

Converting maximum speed to centimeters per second:

vmax = 1.43 m/s * 100 cm/m

vmax ≈ 143 cm/s

Therefore, the maximum speed of the glider is approximately 143 cm/s.

(a) The period of the glider's oscillation is approximately 2.07 seconds.

(b) The frequency of the glider's oscillation is approximately 0.483 Hz.

(c) The amplitude of the glider's oscillation is 47.0 cm.

(d) The maximum speed of the glider is approximately 143 cm/s.

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The graph below represents the motion of a car travelling horizontally along a straight stretch of road in the positive direction. position- time graph. position (m). time (s). 0; 10; 20; 30. 0; 1; 2; 3; 4. Clear According to the information and graph above, what is the displacement of the car between t = 1 s and t = 4 s? A 0 m B 5 m C 15 m D 20 m Related 2-2 Back

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option D: 20 m.

Explanation:

what is the minimum coefficient of static friction to round without sliding a curve with a radius of curvature of 80 m at a speed of 30 m.p.h. (13.4 m/s)? assume the road is flat.

Answers

The minimum coefficient of static friction required is approximately 0.228 to prevent the car from sliding around the curve on a flat road.

To determine the minimum coefficient of static friction (μs) required to prevent a car from sliding around a curve with a radius of curvature (r) of 80 meters at a speed (v) of 13.4 m/s, we can use the following formula:
μs ≥ (v^2) / (r * g)
Where g is the acceleration due to gravity, approximately 9.81 m/s^2. Plugging in the values, we get:
μs ≥ (13.4^2) / (80 * 9.81)
μs ≥ 179.56 / 784.8
μs ≥ 0.228
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What transformer operates on the principle of self-induction?
A. Step-up transformer
B. Self-induced transformer
C. Induction transformer
D. Autotransformer

Answers

D). An autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction. It is a type of transformer with only one winding, shared by both primary and secondary circuits.

The electrical connection between the two circuits is made through the single winding, allowing for voltage regulation and transformation. The principle of self-induction refers to the generation of an electromotive force within a circuit due to the change in the magnetic field produced by the circuit itself.

In an autotransformer, the self-induced voltage allows for a smooth transfer of electrical energy between the primary and secondary circuits. This design leads to a more compact and efficient transformer compared to traditional transformers, such as step-up or step-down transformers. However, one disadvantage is the lack of electrical isolation between the primary and secondary circuits, which may result in safety concerns in some applications.

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When a nerve cell depolarizes, charge is transferred across the cell membrane, changing the potential difference. For a typical nerve cell, 9.0 pC of charge flows in a time of 0.50ms . What is the average current? I tried this: I= Q/t current = (9X10^-12)/ (0.50X 10^-3) = 1.8^-8A But that is the wrong answer :(

Answers

The average current is 9.0 nA. Double-check your calculations to ensure there are no errors in the calculation steps or unit conversions. If the answer is still different, please provide the correct options or any additional information to assist you further.

Your calculation is correct. Let's verify the answer:

Charge (Q) = 9.0 pC = 9.0 × 10^(-12) C

Time (t) = 0.50 ms = 0.50 × 10^(-3) s

To find the average current (I), we use the formula: I = Q/t

Substituting the values:

I = (9.0 × 10^(-12) C) / (0.50 × 10^(-3) s)

  = 9.0 × 10^(-12) C / 0.50 × 10^(-3) s

  = 9.0 × 10^(-12 - (-3)) C/s

  = 9.0 × 10^(-9) C/s

  = 9.0 nA

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if a red ball is higher than a blue ball and both balls have the same mass, which ball has more potential energy?

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The red ball has more potential energy than the blue ball. Potential energy is determined by the height of the object and its mass. Since both balls have the same mass, the ball that is higher has more potential energy.

In a gravitational field, potential energy is determined by the height or position of an object. The potential energy of an object increases with its height above a reference point.

In this scenario, if the red ball is higher than the blue ball and both balls have the same mass, the red ball would have more potential energy. This is because the red ball is positioned at a greater height above the reference point (such as the ground) compared to the blue ball. The potential energy of an object is directly proportional to its height, so the higher the object, the greater its potential energy.

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Determine the magnitude of the acceleration at P when the
blades have turned the 2 revolutions.
A) 0 ft/s2 B) 3.5 ft/s2
C) 115.95 ft/s2 D) 116 ft/s2

Answers

To determine the magnitude of the acceleration at point P, we need to consider the radial acceleration caused by the circular motion of the blades.

The acceleration at point P is given by the formula:

a = rω²

where r is the radius of the circular path and ω is the angular velocity.

Since the blades have turned 2 revolutions, we know that the angle covered is 2π radians. The angular velocity ω is related to the time it takes to complete one revolution by the equation:

ω = 2π / T

where T is the period of one revolution. Since the blades turn 2 revolutions, the period T is given by:

T = 2 * T1

where T1 is the period for one revolution.

We also know that the linear speed v at the tip of the blades is 8 ft/s.

The radius of the circular path can be calculated using the formula:

r = v / ω

Substituting the expressions for ω and T, we have:

r = v / (2π / T1)

Simplifying:

r = v * T1 / (2π)

Now, we can substitute the given values into the equation:

v = 8 ft/s

T1 = 1 s (assuming the time for one revolution)

r = 8 * 1 / (2π)

r ≈ 1.273 ft

Next, we can calculate the angular velocity ω:

ω = 2π / T1

ω = 2π / 1

ω = 2π rad/s

Finally, we can calculate the acceleration at point P using the formula:

a = rω²

a = (1.273 ft) * (2π rad/s)²

a ≈ 115.95 ft/s²

Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration at point P, when the blades have turned 2 revolutions, is approximately 115.95 ft/s². The correct option is C) 115.95 ft/s².

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how many unpaired electrons are there in the following complex? [nif6]4−

Answers

The oxidation state of Ni in [NiF6]4- is +2 because the overall charge on the complex anion is 4-. The coordination number of Ni is 6, which means it is surrounded by six fluoride ions.

To determine the number of unpaired electrons in the complex, we can use Crystal Field Theory (CFT) or Ligand Field Theory (LFT). According to both theories, the d-electrons in Ni will pair up in the lower energy orbitals before populating the higher energy orbitals.

In other words, the crystal field or ligand field created by the surrounding F- ions will cause the five d-orbitals in Ni to split into two sets of three and two orbitals with different energies. The lower energy set (eg) will be filled with four electrons, while the higher energy set (t2g) will have two electrons.

Since all the electrons are paired up within the t2g set, there are no unpaired electrons in [NiF6]4-.

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Trying to determine its depth, a rock climber drops a pebble into a chasm and hears the pebble strike the ground 3.16 s later. (a) If the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s at the rock climber's location, what is the depth of the chasm?____ m (b) What is the percentage of error that would result from assuming the speed of sound is infinite? __%

Answers

(a) The depth of the chasm can be calculated using the equation: depth = (speed of sound) × (time elapsed) / 2.

Given that the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s and the time elapsed is 3.16 s, we can calculate the depth as follows:

depth = (343 m/s) × (3.16 s) / 2 ≈ 542.476 m.

Therefore, the depth of the chasm is approximately 542.476 m.

(b) To calculate the percentage of error resulting from assuming the speed of sound is infinite, we can compare the actual time taken with the assumed time if the speed of sound were infinite.

The assumed time, t_assumed, would be equal to the depth of the chasm divided by the assumed infinite speed of sound (which is not a physical value). Let's denote the depth as d and the actual time taken as t_actual.

t_assumed = d / (speed of sound assumed infinite)

The percentage of error, %error, can be calculated using the formula:

%error = (|t_assumed - t_actual| / t_actual) × 100.

In this case, t_actual is 3.16 s as given.

Assuming the speed of sound is infinite, we have:

t_assumed = d / (speed of sound assumed infinite) = d / ∞ = 0.

Hence, the percentage of error would be:

%error = (|0 - 3.16| / 3.16) × 100 ≈ 100%.

Therefore, assuming the speed of sound is infinite would result in a 100% error in calculating the time and consequently the depth of the chasm.

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Final answer:

To determine the depth of the chasm, we use the equation v = d/t. The depth of the chasm is calculated to be 1084.48 meters. It is not possible to calculate the percentage of error when assuming the speed of sound is infinite.

Explanation:

To determine the depth of the chasm, we can use the equation v = d/t, where v is the velocity of sound, d is the depth of the chasm, and t is the time it takes for the sound to reach the climber. Rearranging the equation, we have d = v x t. Given that the speed of sound is 343 m/s and the time it takes for the sound to reach the climber is 3.16 s, we can calculate the depth of the chasm as follows:



d = (343 m/s) x (3.16 s) = 1084.48 m



Therefore, the depth of the chasm is 1084.48 meters.



To calculate the percentage of error that would result from assuming the speed of sound is infinite, we can use the formula:



Percentage of error = [(actual value - assumed value) / actual value] x 100%



In this case, the assumed value would be infinity. Since the actual value is 343 m/s, the formula becomes:



Percentage of error = [(343 m/s - ∞) / 343 m/s] x 100%



However, dividing by infinity is undefined, so we cannot calculate the percentage of error in this case.

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a wire 6 mm in diameter has an original length of 4 m. the wire is pulled by a force of 400n. if the final length of the string is 4.04 m, determine: i) stress and ii) the elastic modulus

Answers

If the final length of the string is 4.04 m: i) The stress in the wire is approximately 6.33 x 10⁶ Pa (Pascals). ii) The elastic modulus of the wire is approximately 1.26 x 10¹¹ Pa.

What is elastic modulus?

Elastic modulus, also known as modulus of elasticity or Young's modulus, is a material property that measures its stiffness or resistance to deformation when subjected to an applied force. It quantifies the amount of stress a material experiences in response to a given strain.

The elastic modulus is a fundamental concept in materials science and engineering, and it plays a crucial role in determining the mechanical behavior of materials. It is defined as the ratio of stress (force per unit area) to strain (deformation per unit length) within the elastic range of a material. Mathematically, it is expressed as: Elastic Modulus (E) = Stress / Strain

To calculate the stress and elastic modulus of the wire, we need to use the formula for stress: Stress (σ) = Force (F) / Area (A)

First, we need to determine the area of the wire. The wire has a diameter of 6 mm, which means its radius (r) is 3 mm or 0.003 m. Using the formula for the area of a circle, we find: Area (A) = πr² = π(0.003)² = 2.827 x 10⁻⁵ m²

Next, we can calculate the stress by dividing the force applied to the wire by its cross-sectional area: Stress (σ) = 400 N / 2.827 x 10⁻⁵ m²≈ 6.33 x 10⁶Pa

To determine the elastic modulus (E) of the wire, we can rearrange Hooke's Law formula: Stress (σ) = E × Strain (ε)

Since the wire is pulled and its length changes, the strain can be calculated as the change in length (ΔL) divided by the original length (L): Strain (ε) = ΔL / L = (4.04 m - 4 m) / 4 m = 0.01

Rearranging the formula, we find: E = Stress (σ) / Strain (ε) = 6.33 x 10⁶ Pa / 0.01 ≈ 1.26 x 10¹¹ Pa

Therefore, the elastic modulus of the wire is approximately 1.26 x 10¹¹ Pa.

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A thin film of oil with an index of refraction n = 1.5 and thickness t = 55 nm floats on water. The oil is illuminated from above, perpendicular to the surface.
Part A: What is the longest wavelength of light, in nanometers, that will undergo destructive interference when it is shone on the oil?
Part B: What is the next longest wavelength of light, in nanometers, that will undergo destructive interference when it is shone on the oil?
Part C: What is the longest wavelength of light, in nanometers, that will undergo constructive interference when it is shone on the oil?

Answers

Part A: The longest wavelength of light that will undergo destructive interference when shone on the oil is 220 nm.
Part B: The next longest wavelength of light that will undergo destructive interference when shone on the oil is 440 nm.
Part C: The longest wavelength of light that will undergo constructive interference when shone on the oil is 330 nm.


For destructive interference, the path difference should be an odd multiple of λ/2, where λ is the wavelength. Since the oil has an index of refraction n = 1.5, the path difference is 2nt. The equation for destructive interference is:
2nt = (2m-1)λ/2
For the longest wavelength (m = 1), λ = 4nt, which results in λ = 220 nm.

For the next longest wavelength (m = 2), λ = 4nt/3, which results in λ = 440 nm.

For constructive interference, the path difference should be a multiple of λ. The equation for constructive interference is:
2nt = mλ
For the longest wavelength (m = 1), λ = 2nt, which results in λ = 330 nm.

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A pair of cyclonic and anticyclonic vortices are observed in the atmosphere at 43 degrees north. Both vertices have the same area averaged value of relative vorticity=1* 10^-5. Suppose that a uniform horizontal convergence and divergence asociated with the cyclonic and anticyclonic vortices, respectively, persists during an entire day with equal magnitudes( |del dot v|= 2 *10^-6). Estimate the respictive changes in voticity as a consequence of this circumstance.

Answers

The change in vorticity (Δζ) can be estimated using the following relationship:

Δζ = -Δ(divergence) * Δt

Given that the horizontal convergence (divergence) associated with the cyclonic vortex is equal in magnitude to the horizontal divergence associated with the anticyclonic vortex, we have:

|Δ(divergence)| = |divergence_cyclonic| = |divergence_anticyclonic| = 2 * 10^-6

Assuming that the convergence and divergence persist for an entire day, Δt can be taken as 24 hours (or any specific duration).

Plugging in the values, we have:

Δζ = - (2 * 10^-6) * (24 * 3600 seconds)

Simplifying the expression, we find:

Δζ = - 172.8 * 10^-6

Since both the cyclonic and anticyclonic vortices have the same area-averaged value of relative vorticity (1 * 10^-5), the changes in vorticity will be opposite in sign but equal in magnitude.

Therefore, the estimated changes in vorticity for the cyclonic and anticyclonic vortices, respectively, are:

Δζ_cyclonic = - 172.8 * 10^-6

Δζ_anticyclonic = 172.8 * 10^-6

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A conducting sphere of radius 0.01 m has a charge of 1.0 times 10^-9 C deposited on it. The magnitude of the electric field just outside the surface of the sphere is. 0 N/C 450 N/C 900 N/C 4500 N/C Positive charge Q is placed on a conducting spherical shell with inner radius R_1 and outer radius R_2. A point charge q is placed at the center of the cavity. The force on the charge q is. Qq/4 pi epsilon_0 R_1^2 Qq/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_2^2 - R_1^2) Qq/4 pi epsilon_0 R_2^2 P Qq/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_2^2 + E_1^2) 0 positive charge Q is placed on a conducting spherical shell with inner radius R_1 and outer radius R_2. A point charge q is placed at the center of the cavity. The magnitude of the electric field at a point outside the shell, a distance r from the center, is: Q/4 pi epsilon_0 R_1^2 Q/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_1^2 - r^2) q/4 pi epsilon_0 r^2 (q + Q)/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_1^2 - r^2) Positive charge Q is placed on a conducting spherical shell with inner radius R_1 and outer radius R_2. The electric field at a point r < R_1 is:: Q/4 pi epsilon_0 R_1^2 Q/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_1^2 - r^2) Q/4 pi epsilon_0 r^2 0 Q/4 pi epsilon_0 (R_1^2 + r^2)

Answers

The electric field at a point inside the shell, where r < R_1, is zero. Therefore, the correct option is 0.The electric field at a point outside the shell, a distance r from the center, is given by the equation E = Q/4πε_0r^2, where Q is the charge on the shell and r is the distance from the center.

The magnitude of the electric field just outside the surface of a conducting sphere with radius 0.01 m and charge 1.0 × 10^-9 C is given by the equation E = Q/4πε_0r^2, where Q is the charge on the sphere, ε_0 is the permittivity of free space, and r is the distance from the center of the sphere. Plugging in the given values, we get E = (1.0 × 10^-9 C)/(4πε_0(0.01 m)^2) ≈ 4500 N/C.  For the force on a point charge q placed at the center of a conducting spherical shell with inner radius R_1 and outer radius R_2 and positive charge Q, the correct option is Qq/4πε_0(R_2^2 - R_1^2).

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An architect designs a wheelchair ramp for a historical building. The entry way is a level platform at the top of stairs that are 3 meters above ground level and extend 4 m out from the building. There is an obstacle 25 m from the stairs, and the city code for ramps limits the incline angle to .6∘. Is there sufficient distance for a ramp within this limit? How do you know? a)No, because the ratio of 425425 is greater than sin6∘.sin⁡6∘. b)Yes, because the ratio of 325325 is less than sin6∘.sin⁡6∘. c)No, because the ratio of 325325 is greater than tan6∘.tan⁡6∘. d)Yes, because the ratio of 425425 is less than tan6∘.

Answers

The correct answer is **b) Yes, because the ratio of 3/25 is less than sin(6°)**.

To determine whether there is sufficient distance for a ramp within the incline angle limit, we need to compare the ratio of the vertical distance (3 meters) to the horizontal distance (25 meters) with the value of sin(6°).

The incline angle limit is given as 0.6°. We can convert this to radians by multiplying it by π/180.

The ratio of the vertical distance to the horizontal distance (3/25) represents the tangent of the angle of inclination.

Now, we can compare the ratio of 3/25 with the value of sin(6°). Since the slope of the ramp should be less than or equal to sin(6°) to meet the code requirements, we need to check if the ratio is less than sin(6°).

By calculating sin(6°) and comparing it with the ratio of 3/25, we find that the ratio of 3/25 is indeed less than sin(6°). Therefore, there is sufficient distance for a ramp within the given incline angle limit.

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There are two bowls having spinning marbles in them. One bowl contains marble with water and the other bowl contain only marble without water. Which marble will stop first?

Answers

There are two bowls having spinning marbles in them, one bowl contains marble with water and the other bowl contain only marble without water, the marble will stop first is without water

This is because of the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but can only be transferred or converted from one form to another.When the bowl with marbles without water spins, the marbles transfer their kinetic energy to the bowl, which slows them down and eventually stops them.

However, when the bowl with marble and water spins, the kinetic energy of the marbles is transferred to the water. The water absorbs some of the energy and moves in the opposite direction, creating resistance, this resistance slows down the marbles, but not as quickly as in the bowl with only marbles. Therefore, when two bowls have spinning marbles, the one with only marbles without water will stop first,

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to get her violin perfectly tuned to concert a, should she tighten or loosen her string from what it was when she heard the 6.00

Answers

To get her violin perfectly tuned to concert A, she should tighten or loosen her string based on whether it was flat or sharp compared to the 6.00 Hz reference pitch.

If her string was flat, she should tighten it slightly to increase its tension and raise its pitch. If her string was sharp, she should loosen it slightly to decrease its tension and lower its pitch. The goal is to match the frequency of her string to the frequency of concert A, which is typically 440 Hz.  To get her violin perfectly tuned to concert A, she should adjust her string from the 6.00 Hz frequency that she heard.

To perfectly tune her violin to concert A, she should tighten or loosen the string depending on the current frequency compared to the target frequency of 440 Hz. If the current frequency is lower than 440 Hz, she needs to tighten the string. If the current frequency is higher than 440 Hz, she needs to loosen the string. This will ensure that her violin is tuned to the desired concert A pitch.

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As a whole, cool-season turfgrasses can tolerate atmospheric pollution better than warm-season turfgrasses.
a. true b. false

Answers

The statement is generally true. Cool-season turfgrasses, such as Kentucky bluegrass, tall fescue, and perennial ryegrass, have been found to be more tolerant of atmospheric pollution than warm-season turfgrasses, such as Bermuda grass and zoysia grass. This is because cool-season turfgrasses have a higher leaf density and tend to grow more actively during cooler months, allowing them to better absorb and filter pollutants from the air. Additionally, cool-season turfgrasses have a deeper root system, which helps them to better withstand environmental stressors. However, it is important to note that the specific tolerance levels may vary depending on the pollutant and the specific species of turfgrass. Overall, cool-season turfgrasses are a good option for areas with high levels of atmospheric pollution.
The answer to your question is:

a. True

As a whole, cool-season turfgrasses can tolerate atmospheric pollution better than warm-season turfgrasses. The reason for this is that cool-season grasses, such as Kentucky bluegrass, fescue, and ryegrass, have evolved in regions with cooler temperatures and varying levels of pollution. This has led to the development of genetic traits that allow them to better tolerate and adapt to these conditions.

On the other hand, warm-season turfgrasses, such as Bermuda grass, zoysia grass, and St. Augustine grass, are native to regions with warmer climates and generally lower levels of atmospheric pollution. As a result, they are not as well-equipped to handle the stress caused by air pollution.

The ability of cool-season turfgrasses to tolerate atmospheric pollution better than warm-season turfgrasses can be attributed to the differences in their native environments and the genetic traits they have developed as a result.

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