The management of a corporation is investigating buying a small used aircraft to use in making airborne inspections of its above-ground pipelines. The aircraft would have a useful life of 5 years. The company uses a discount rate of 13% in its capital budgeting. The net present value of the investment, excluding the intangible benefits, is -$396,300.
How large would the annual intangible benefit have to be to make the investment in the aircraft financially attractive?

Answers

Answer 1

To make the investment in the aircraft financially attractive, the annual intangible benefit would need to be large enough to offset the net present value of -$396,300.

The net present value (NPV) is a measure used in capital budgeting to assess the profitability of an investment. In this case, the NPV of the investment in the aircraft is -$396,300, indicating a negative value.

To determine the required annual intangible benefit that would make the investment financially attractive, we need to calculate the annuity value that would offset the negative NPV. The annuity value represents the constant cash inflow needed to make the investment financially viable.

The formula to calculate the annuity value is:

Annuity Value = NPV / (1 - (1 + r)^(-n))

Where:

NPV is the net present value of the investment

r is the discount rate

n is the useful life of the investment

Plugging in the values:

Annuity Value = -$396,300 / (1 - (1 + 0.13)^(-5))

Annuity Value ≈ -$396,300 / (1 - 0.56504)

Annuity Value ≈ -$396,300 / 0.43496

Annuity Value ≈ $911,202.36

Therefore, the annual intangible benefit would need to be approximately $911,202.36 to make the investment in the aircraft financially attractive and offset the negative net present value.

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Related Questions

Which of the following financial ratios has little relevance in the corporate-bond credit-rating process?

Answers

The financial ratio that has little relevance in the corporate-bond credit-rating process is the dividend yield ratio. So, the correct option is C.

The dividend yield ratio is calculated by dividing the annual dividend per share by the stock's market price. It is primarily used by equity investors to assess the income potential of an investment in a company's stock.

In the corporate-bond credit-rating process, the focus is on evaluating the creditworthiness and risk associated with a company's debt obligations. Credit rating agencies assess factors such as the company's financial leverage, liquidity, profitability, interest coverage ratio, debt service coverage ratio, and other metrics related to the company's ability to meet its debt obligations.

Dividend payments are not directly relevant in assessing the company's ability to repay its debt or the overall creditworthiness of the company. Therefore, the dividend yield ratio has little relevance in the corporate-bond credit-rating process.

Therefore, the correct option is C.Dividend Yield Ratio.

The complete question should be:

Which of the following financial ratios has little relevance in the corporate-bond credit-rating process?

A. Price-to-Earnings Ratio

B. Return on Equity

C. Dividend Yield Ratio

D. Equity Ratio

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Determine whether the following statement is true or false: Departmental contribution to overhead is the same as gross profit generated by that department.

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The statement "Departmental contribution to overhead is the same as gross profit generated by that department" is false.

Here's a step-by-step explanation:

1. Departmental contribution to overhead refers to the amount a specific department contributes towards covering the company's indirect expenses or overhead costs. It is calculated by subtracting the direct expenses (such as labor and materials) of that department from its revenue.

2. Gross profit, on the other hand, represents the amount left after deducting the cost of goods sold (COGS) from the revenue generated by that department. COGS includes all the direct expenses associated with producing the goods or providing the services by the department.

3. While both departmental contribution to overhead and gross profit involve subtracting certain costs from the revenue, they are not the same because they consider different sets of expenses. Departmental contribution to overhead focuses on covering indirect expenses, while gross profit looks at the remaining amount after accounting for the cost of goods sold.

4. In summary, the statement is false as these two financial metrics serve different purposes and are calculated using different sets of expenses.

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Organizations obtain new information systems by: O having outside consultants custom-build the system. o purchasing prepackaged systems. O All of the above. O having members of the organization build the system.

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Organizations obtain new information systems by having outside consultants custom-build the system or by purchasing prepackaged systems.

In some cases, members of the organization build the system. All of the above are ways in which organizations can obtain new information systems.

The first way that organizations obtain new information systems is by having outside consultants custom-build the system. In this method, the organization hires a consultant to build a system that meets its specific needs.  

The second way is by purchasing prepackaged systems. In this method, the organization purchases a system that has already been developed and can be customized to meet its needs.

Finally, in some cases, members of the organization build the system. This is often done when the organization has a team of developers who are skilled in the technologies needed to build the system.

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An accrual of wages expense would have what effect on the balance sheet? Select one: O A. Decrease liabilities and increase equity O B. Increase assets and increase liabilities. O O C. Increase liabilities and decrease equity D. Decrease assets and decrease liabilities E. None of the above O Sales on account would produce what effect on the balance sheet? Select one: OA. Increase the Revenue account O B. Increase noncash assets (Accounts receivable) O C. Increase cash assets D. A and B E. A, B and C O O

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An accrual of wages expense would have the following effect on the balance sheet (option C) Increase liabilities and decrease equity

Accrued wages represent an expense that has been incurred but not yet paid. When wages are accrued, a liability is recognized because the company owes its employees for their work.

On the balance sheet, the increase in liabilities represents the accrued wages owed to employees. This is recorded as a current liability, typically under the heading of "Accrued Expenses" or "Accrued Liabilities."

The decrease in equity occurs because expenses reduce the company's net income, which in turn decreases retained earnings (a component of equity). This decrease in equity reflects the impact of the wage expense on the company's financial position.

Regarding the second question: Sales on account would have the following effect on the balance sheet:

Option D. A and B

Sales on account refer to sales made to customers who have not yet paid for the goods or services. This is commonly referred to as accounts receivable.

Option A: Increase the Revenue account

Sales on account increase the Revenue account because revenue is recognized when the sale is made, regardless of whether the customer has paid yet.

Option B: Increase noncash assets (Accounts receivable)

When sales are made on the account, accounts receivable, which is a noncash asset, increase. This represents the amount owed to the company by its customers for the goods or services provided.

Option C: Increase cash assets

Sales on account do not directly increase cash assets. Cash assets would only increase when the customers make payments for their outstanding balances.

In conclusion, the accrual of wages expense would increase liabilities and decrease equity on the balance sheet. Sales on account would increase the Revenue account and increase noncash assets (Accounts receivable) on the balance sheet.

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question 7 one of your co-workers is giving a presentation on the results of an analysis the two of you have been working on. someone in the audience points out that the data system you used has frequent errors. how should you deal with this comment?

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Acknowledge the comment and express gratitude for bringing up the concern, then address it by explaining the steps taken to mitigate errors in the data system.

When faced with such a comment, it is important to maintain professionalism and handle the situation tactfully. Begin by thanking the individual for their observation and acknowledging the concern raised. This demonstrates openness and a willingness to address any potential issues. Next, provide an explanation of the measures taken to ensure data accuracy, such as implementing quality control procedures, conducting regular data validation checks, or working closely with technical experts to improve the system's reliability.

By openly addressing the comment, expressing gratitude, and offering insights into the steps taken to minimize errors, you can demonstrate your commitment to data integrity and instill confidence in the audience. It is crucial to maintain transparency and focus on the actions taken to rectify the situation rather than becoming defensive or dismissing the concern raised. This approach fosters a constructive dialogue and showcases your professionalism in handling feedback and improving the quality of your work.

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which of the following accurately describes a two-card kanban system? group of answer choices the production card signals when a container that held parts should be returned to inventory. the move card signals when a container of parts should be produced. the production card signals when a move card should be moved to the next process step. the move card signals when a container of parts should move to the next process step.

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The statement The move card signals when a container of parts should move to the next process step accurately describes a two-card kanban system.

In a two-card kanban system, there are two types of cards: production cards and move cards. The move card is used to signal when a container of parts should be moved from one process step to the next.

It serves as a visual cue to authorize the movement of materials to maintain a continuous flow within the production process.

The move card in a two-card kanban system plays a crucial role in controlling the movement of containers of parts between process steps. It helps ensure that materials are transferred at the right time, minimizing delays and maintaining an efficient production flow.

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"The move card signals when a container of parts should move to the next process step." is true in a two-card Kanban system.

In such a system, there are two kinds of Kanban cards: a "move" card and a "production" card.

The "move" card signals that a batch of parts can be moved from one stage of the production process to the next.

The "production" card, on the other hand, signals that more of a certain part should be produced.

These cards are used in tandem to control the flow of goods through the production process, aiming to achieve a just-in-time production system where goods are produced exactly when they're needed, reducing waste and improving efficiency.

Which of the following will cause an increase in the quantity supplied of ice cream at local grocery stores? The cost of cream, an input to the production of ice cream, rises. Prairie Farms, a major producer of ice cream, invents a new cost-saving process for freezing ice cream. The price of ice cream falls. The price of frozen custard, a substitute for ice cream in the minds of many consumers, falls. The price of ice cream rises.

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The invention of a new cost-saving process for freezing ice cream by Prairie Farms, a major producer of ice cream, will cause an increase in the quantity supplied of ice cream at local grocery stores.  

This is because the cost of production for Prairie Farms will decrease, allowing them to supply more ice cream at a lower cost.

When the cost of an input to the production of ice cream, such as cream, rises, it becomes more expensive for producers to make ice cream, leading to a decrease in the quantity supplied.  When the price of ice cream falls, producers may be less willing to supply it, leading to a decrease in the quantity supplied. When the price of frozen custard falls, some consumers may switch to it instead of ice cream, causing a decrease in the quantity demanded of ice cream and potentially a decrease in the quantity supplied.  

When Prairie Farms invents a new cost-saving process for freezing ice cream, it reduces the production cost of ice cream. This allows the company to produce more ice cream at a lower cost, leading to an increase in the quantity supplied.

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Are T-Notes and T-bonds completely risk-free? How are the
interest rates?

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T-Notes (Treasury Notes) and T-Bonds (Treasury Bonds) are considered to be relatively low-risk investments because they are issued by the U.S. government, which is considered one of the most creditworthy entities in the world.

While they are not completely risk-free, they are often perceived as close to risk-free due to the backing of the U.S. government. The primary risk associated with T-Notes and T-Bonds is interest rate risk. As fixed-income securities, their prices are inversely related to interest rates.

When interest rates rise, the prices of existing T-Notes and T-Bonds decrease, leading to a potential loss of principal if sold before maturity. Conversely, when interest rates fall, their prices increase, resulting in capital appreciation.

The interest rates on T-Notes and T-Bonds are determined through the auction process. The U.S. Department of the Treasury holds regular auctions to sell these securities, and the interest rates are set based on market demand and prevailing rates.

The interest payments, known as coupon payments, are made semi-annually to investors. It's important to note that while T-Notes and Treasury Bonds carry relatively low default risk, they are not immune to other risks such as inflation risk and reinvestment risk.

Inflation can erode the purchasing power of the fixed interest payments, and reinvestment risk arises when interest payments are reinvested at lower rates upon maturity.

In conclusion, while T-Notes and T-Bonds are generally considered low-risk investments due to their backing by the U.S. government, they are not completely risk-free. Investors should be aware of the interest rate risk and other factors that can impact the value and returns of these securities.

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Internal control
You are a senior auditor at JKF Partners (JKF) who has been asked to assist with recommendations for improving the internal controls of Sunflower Ltd (Sunflower).
Visa Express is the corporate credit card provider for Sunflower. Staff at the managerial level or above at Sunflower can apply for a credit card to use for business expenses (e.g., travel, expenses).
Given the significant number of Sunflower’s overseas clients, the use of Visa Express Credit cards has been extremely convenient for staff members, especially when they have had to pay for significant overseas expenses in foreign currencies. For example, executive have often had to unexpectedly use the Visa Express credit card to book business-class international airfares and extend hotel stays while on overseas assignment. Sunflower is liable for all expenditures accrued on these credit cards.
While the card is not really meant for personal use, many of the senior managers also use the credit card to make personal purchases while travelling and then send a cheque made out to ‘Visa Express’ for the relevant amount to the accounts payable department to repay the expenditures.
In late 2021, it was discovered that the accounts payable clerk at Sunflower, Melinda Tran, had defrauded Sunflower of an estimated $1.5 million. Among her other duties, Melinda was responsible for maintenance of the Visa Express account and her defrauding of Sunflower involved this account. Cheques made out to Visa Express by the senior managers for their 4 personal expenditure were never sent to cover Sunflower’s outstanding balances. For the past eight months, Melinda had been depositing these cheques into her personal account with Visa Express. The fraud was discovered by a temporary staff member brought into accounts payable to cover Melinda’s position while she was away on compassionate leave.
Following the discovery of the fraud, the Board has requested that you review the policies and procedures currently in place in the accounts payable department and make recommendations to the Board on how to improve the internal control environment. You have been Required:(i)(ii) (iii)given the following background facts: During the time that Melinda had been working at Sunflower, she had only taken a few days of sick leave as well as two weeks of compassionate leave in November 2020 following the death of her father. By late 2021 Melinda had accumulated approximately 28 weeks of annual leave.
During the period of compassionate leave, the accounts payable team received a phone call from Visa Express chasing up an outstanding debt balance of more than $1.75 million. The debt balance was more than 90 days in arrears. Melinda had kept records of all expenditure incurred on the cards during the relevant period, including details indicating whether expenses were of a personal or business nature. There were also photocopies of the personal cheques made out to Visa Express which various senior managers had sent with their accounts each month to cover the personal expenditure incurred on their cards.
Further review of the files and discussions with Visa Express revealed that the cheques made out to Visa Express by the senior managers for their personal expenditure were never sent to cover Sunflower’s outstanding balance. For the past six months, Melinda had been depositing these cheques into her personal accounts with Visa Express. At the time the fraud was discovered, Melinda had over $1.5 million in credit on her personal Visa Express account. Based on the information above, identify the key factor (other than segregation of duties) that enabled the fraud to remain undetected for such a long period of time. (1 mark) (100 words) List and explain at least four weaknesses in the current accounts payable area (specifically dealing with the Visa Express corporate account). (2 marks) (300 words) For each weakness identified in (ii) above, recommend a practical and effective internal control procedure that could be introduced to overcome the weakness.

Answers

The key factor, other than segregation of duties, that enabled the fraud to remain undetected for such a long period of time is the lack of proper reconciliation and oversight of the Visa Express corporate account. It appears that no one was regularly reconciling the account statements and comparing them to the outstanding balances recorded by Melinda Tran.

This lack of reconciliation allowed Melinda to manipulate the records and divert the personal cheques into her personal account without being noticed.

Weaknesses in the current accounts payable area dealing with the Visa Express corporate account are as follows:

Lack of reconciliationInadequate supervisionLack of segregation of dutiesInadequate internal controls over personal expenditures

1. Lack of reconciliation: There was no regular reconciliation of the Visa Express corporate account with the recorded outstanding balances. This allowed the fraud to go unnoticed as the discrepancies were not identified and investigated in a timely manner.

Recommendation: Implement a monthly reconciliation process where an independent party compares the account statements from Visa Express with the recorded outstanding balances. Any discrepancies should be investigated promptly.

2. Inadequate supervision: There was insufficient supervision and oversight of Melinda Tran's activities. The absence of proper management review and monitoring allowed her to manipulate the records and divert the personal cheques without detection.

Recommendation: Assign a supervisor or manager who is responsible for reviewing and approving the transactions related to the Visa Express corporate account. This supervisor should have access to all relevant records and be involved in the reconciliation process.

3. Lack of segregation of duties: Melinda Tran had too much control and responsibility over the Visa Express account. She was responsible for maintaining the account, recording transactions, and depositing the cheques, which allowed her to exploit the system without detection.

Recommendation: Implement a segregation of duties by assigning different individuals to perform key tasks related to the Visa Express account. For example, one person should be responsible for recording transactions, another for account maintenance, and a separate individual for depositing cheques.

4. Inadequate internal controls over personal expenditures: There were no specific controls in place to verify the legitimacy of personal expenditures made by senior managers. The lack of scrutiny over personal expenses created an opportunity for Melinda to divert the personal cheques for her own benefit.

Recommendation: Establish a formal process for reviewing and approving personal expenditures made by senior managers. This can include requiring detailed expense reports, receipts, and managerial approval for each personal transaction. Regular audits should also be conducted to ensure compliance with the established controls.

By implementing these recommendations, Sunflower can strengthen its internal control environment and reduce the risk of fraud and misappropriation of funds in the accounts payable area, specifically related to the Visa Express corporate account.

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Which one of the following statements is correct? a)The APR on a monthly loan is equal to (1 + monthly interest rate)12-1. b)The APR is equal to the EAR for a loan that charges interest monthly. c)The APR is the best measure of the actual rate you are paying on a loan. d)The EAR, rather than the APR, should be used to compare both investment and loan options. e)The EAR is always greater than the APR.

Answers

The correct statement is that the EAR, rather than the APR, should be used to compare both investment and loan options.

The Effective Annual Rate (EAR) takes into account the compounding of interest over time and provides a more accurate measure of the actual rate paid or earned on a loan or investment. On the other hand, the Annual Percentage Rate (APR) is a simple interest rate that does not consider the compounding effect.

Option d) states that the EAR, rather than the APR, should be used to compare both investment and loan options, which is correct. When comparing different investment or loan options, it is important to consider the compounding effect, as it can significantly impact the overall return or cost.

The APR, as mentioned in option c), is not always the best measure of the actual rate paid on a loan because it does not account for compounding. The APR is a standardized measure that allows for easier comparison between different loan offers, but it may not reflect the true cost of borrowing.

Option a) provides an incorrect formula for calculating the APR on a monthly loan. Option b) is also incorrect as the APR and EAR are different measures. Lastly, option e) is not always true as the relationship between the EAR and APR depends on the specific loan or investment terms.

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what is the health and social care levy? what are the arguments in
favour for it ? and what are the arguments against it ?

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The Health and Social Care Levy is a tax increase announced by the UK government to fund the National Health Service (NHS) and social care. It will be implemented from April 2022 and is expected to raise around £12 billion a year.

The levy is essentially an additional tax on earned income, and will be calculated as a 1.25% increase in National Insurance Contributions (NICs) for all working-age people. Proponents of the levy argue that it is necessary to address the increasing demand for healthcare and social care services in the UK, particularly due to an ageing population. The pandemic has also highlighted the need for additional funding for the NHS. The levy will provide more resources for the NHS to reduce waiting times for treatments and surgeries, improve care quality, and recruit more staff.


Opponents argue that the levy is regressive, as it disproportionately affects lower-income earners who are already struggling financially. The increase in NICs also affects self-employed individuals and businesses, reducing their ability to invest and create jobs. Some also argue that the government should focus on more comprehensive reforms to the social care system, rather than just funding it through tax increases.


Overall, the Health and Social Care Levy has generated mixed reactions from the public and policymakers. While it may provide some much-needed funding for healthcare and social care services, it also raises concerns about its impact on lower-income earners and the wider economy.

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the retrospective facilitator should be able to deliver bad news to the project sponsor or senior management without recriminations. t/f

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True. The retrospective facilitator should be able to deliver bad news to the project sponsor or senior management without recriminations

The role of the retrospective facilitator is to create a safe and non-judgmental environment where team members can openly discuss their experiences, challenges, and areas for improvement. This includes sharing both positive and negative feedback, including any bad news or issues that may have arisen during the project. The facilitator should encourage transparency and ensure that all voices are heard, fostering a culture of trust and collaboration. By delivering bad news without recriminations, the retrospective facilitator promotes a blame-free atmosphere and helps the team focus on identifying root causes, finding solutions, and implementing improvements. This approach enables the project sponsor or senior management to receive valuable feedback and make informed decisions to address any issues that may have been raised during the retrospective.

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some proposals are solicited through an rfp which stands for

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RFP stands for Request for Proposal. RFP is a document that organizations or companies use to solicit proposals from potential suppliers or vendors for goods or services. The purpose of an RFP is to identify the best proposal that meets the requirements of the organization and provides the most value for money.

An RFP typically outlines the specific needs and expectations of the organization, the evaluation criteria for selecting a proposal, and the submission requirements for vendors. The process of responding to an RFP can be time-consuming and often requires a significant amount of effort to produce a high-quality proposal. In summary, an RFP is a formal document that organizations use to solicit proposals from potential vendors. The RFP process helps organizations identify the best proposal that meets their needs and provides the most value for money. Responding to an RFP requires careful attention to detail and a significant investment of time and effort to produce a high-quality proposal.

RFP stands for "Request for Proposal." A Request for Proposal (RFP) is a document that organizations use to solicit bids from potential suppliers or contractors for a specific project or service. In a typical RFP process, an organization will create a document outlining their project requirements and specifications, and then invite qualified suppliers or contractors to submit proposals that address these needs. The organization will then evaluate the submitted proposals based on specific criteria, such as price, technical capabilities, and experience, before selecting the winning bid. This process helps ensure that the organization obtains the best value and the most suitable solution for their needs.

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Who among the following is providing sound crisis leadership?
a. Ryan, who remains calm and stable even when the situation seems most dire
b. Linda, who spends most of her energy focusing on defending her group against criticism for causing the crisis
c. Milan, who expects her employees to adapt to a crisis even without proper planning beforehand
d. Aftab, who believes that pessimism is the most realistic reaction to a crisis and will avoid the worst consequences

Answers

The analysis of the potential for self-harm is the most important step in care planning for a client who is planning care going through a crisis. The correct answer is a. Ryan, who remains calm and stable even when the situation seems most dire.

A care plan is composed of five steps: assessment, diagnosis, outcomes and planning, execution, and evaluation. Care planning is the process of talking about how a person's illness affects their life and how they can be effectively supported to meet their health and wellbeing needs for the rest of their lives. The care plan belongs to the individual, and it may only be disclosed to third parties with that person's consent.A plan of care, which is a presentation of information, essentially describes the services and help being given to a person care review and planning should be done in tandem.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Gross ____ income includes all income earned from American-owned resources plus government revenue from taxes on production and imports.

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Gross national income (GNI) is a measure that quantifies the total income earned by a country's residents, including income from domestic and foreign sources.

It is often used as an indicator of a country's economic performance and is calculated by adding up various components.

The components of gross national income include:

1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP): GDP represents the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders. It includes the income earned by individuals and business within the country.

2. Net income from abroad: This component captures the income earned by a country's residents from their investments and activities abroad, minus the income earned by foreign residents within the country. It includes factors such as profits from foreign investments, dividends, and remittances.

3. Taxes on production and imports: This component represents the revenue generated by the government through taxes on production, such as value-added taxes (VAT) and excise taxes, as well as taxes on imports.

By combining these components, gross national income provides a comprehensive measure of the total income generated by a country and its residents, including income earned domestically and abroad, as well as government revenue from production and imports. It helps assess the overall economic activity and income distribution within a country.

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which type of scale would be appropriate to prioritize a requirement that is mission critical?

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A nominal scale would be appropriate to prioritize a mission-critical requirement.

In order to prioritize a requirement that is mission-critical, a scale that allows for categorical ranking without any quantitative measurement would be appropriate. The nominal scale is the most basic level of measurement where categories are assigned for identification or classification purposes. It does not involve any ordering or quantitative assessment of the variables.

Using a nominal scale, the mission-critical requirement can be classified as a distinct category separate from other requirements. This allows for clear identification and prioritization of the requirement based on its criticality. Other scales, such as ordinal or interval scales, involve ranking or quantitative measurement, which may not be suitable for capturing the specific importance of a mission-critical requirement. Therefore, a nominal scale is the most appropriate choice to prioritize such a requirement, ensuring it receives the necessary attention and resources.

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The free-cash-flow-to-equity approach: A) Evaluates projects by considering free cash flow (FCF) before debt repayment. B) Is disliked by Wall Street practitioners because it relies on hard-to-estimate projections. C) Is helpful because it provides a measurement of total firm value. D) Has more than one value, if FCF is negative in one year.

Answers

The free-cash-flow-to-equity approach evaluates projects by considering free cash flow (FCF) before debt repayment, hence option A is correct. Free cash flow (FCF) is an accounting and financial metric that indicates the amount of cash available after all expenses have been paid and the capital expenditures required for operations have been made. Companies with substantial free cash flow are considered financially healthy, while those with negative or minimal free cash flow are often viewed as unsustainable.

The free-cash-flow-to-equity approach is a valuation strategy that estimates the total worth of a company's equity utilizing the present value of its future free cash flows. It evaluates projects by considering free cash flow (FCF) before debt repayment. The FCFE is derived from the net cash flows from operating activities after adjusting for all capital expenditures, taxes, and changes in working capital. The FCFE approach provides investors with a measurement of total firm value and is beneficial since it considers the company's cash flow that is available to equity shareholders. However, the approach may rely on hard-to-estimate projections and have more than one value, if FCF is negative in one year. As a conclusion, we can say that the option A) is the correct answer: The free-cash-flow-to-equity approach evaluates projects by considering free cash flow (FCF) before debt repayment.

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Company was a mutual standard of 21 pounds per tots fachowed as a standard prisiz per pound. During February, COWO 760 pounds were and to be 2480 unit. What is the direct material price variance?

Answers

The direct material price variance is 13288.80 pounds.

The given values are as follows:

Standard price per pound = 21 pounds

Quantity used = 760 pounds

Actual cost incurred = 2480 units

The direct material price variance is calculated using the formula below:

Direct Material Price Variance = (Standard Price – Actual Price) * Actual Quantity

Direct Material Price Variance = (SP – AP) * AQ,

where

SP = Standard price

AP = Actual price

AQ = Actual quantity

Using the formula for Direct Material Price Variance, we have;

Direct Material Price Variance = (21 – AP) * 760

We do not know the actual price, but we can calculate it using the information provided. We have;

Total actual cost incurred = Actual price * Actual quantity

2480 = AP * 760

AP = 2480/760

AP = 3.26

Therefore,

Direct Material Price Variance = (21 – 3.26) * 760= 13288.80 pounds.

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an auditor's permanent file audit documentation most likely will contain: a. internal control analysis for the current year b. the most recent engagement letter c. memoranda of conference with management d. excerpts of the corporate charter and bylaws

Answers

An auditor's permanent file is a critical element in ensuring compliance and accuracy in financial reporting. This file is compiled and maintained by the auditor to provide evidence and support for their audit opinions and conclusions.

Some of the items that are likely to be included in an auditor's permanent file audit documentation include:
a) Internal control analysis for the current year: This is a detailed analysis of the internal control system that the organization has in place to ensure that financial information is accurate, reliable, and complete. It includes an evaluation of the design and operating effectiveness of the control system and identifies any weaknesses or deficiencies.
b) The most recent engagement letter: This is a formal agreement between the auditor and the client that outlines the scope of the audit, the responsibilities of both parties, and the fees to be charged. It is a critical document that sets the expectations for the audit and provides a reference point for any disputes or disagreements that may arise during the audit.
c) Memoranda of conference with management: These are notes and records of discussions that the auditor has had with management during the course of the audit. They document any significant issues or concerns that were raised, any actions that were taken, and any decisions that were made.
d) Excerpts of the corporate charter and bylaws: These documents provide information on the legal structure and governance of the organization. They are important for understanding the organization's ownership structure, the powers and responsibilities of the board of directors, and any other key governance-related issues.
Overall, an auditor's permanent file is a comprehensive and detailed record of the audit process and the evidence that supports the audit opinion. It is essential for ensuring the accuracy and reliability of financial reporting and for providing a basis for future audits.

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A financial advisor is cold-calling leads. A prospect mentions that he manages his own portfolio and hasn’t used an advisor in the past. What should the advisor do first?
1, Ask if there’s a reason he hasn’t used an advisor in the past
2, Tell him about the easy account set-up process
3, Ask him what his yearly returns have been

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The advisor should first ask if there a reason the prospect hasn't used an advisor in the past. Its important for the advisor to understand the prospect reasons for not using an advisor in the past. This will help the advisor address any concerns or objections the prospect may have and tailor their pitch accordingly.

Telling the prospect about the easy account set-up process or asking about their yearly returns may not be relevant or effective if the prospect has specific reasons for managing their own portfolio. By understanding their perspective, the advisor can build trust and credibility with the prospect and potentially overcome any barriers to working together.

By asking if there's a reason the prospect hasn't used an advisor in the past, the financial advisor can learn more about the prospect's experience, preferences, and potential pain points. This information can help the advisor tailor their approach and address the prospect's concerns effectively. It also demonstrates empathy and an interest in understanding the prospect's perspective, which can help establish trust and rapport.

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Casey Nelson is a divisional manager for a company. His annual pay raises are largely determined by his division’s return on investment (ROI), which has been above 22% each of the last three years. Casey is considering a capital budgeting project that would require a $3,800,000 investment in equipment with a useful life of five years and no salvage value. The company's discount rate is 18%. The project would provide net operating income each year for five years as follows: Sales $ 3,700,000 Variable expenses 1,720,000 Contribution margin 1,980,000 Fixed expenses: Advertising, salaries, and otherfixed out-of-pocket costs $ 730,000 Depreciation 760,000 Total fixed expenses 1,490,000 Net operating income $ 490,000 Required: 1. What is the project’s net present value? 2. What is the project’s internal rate of return to the nearest whole percent? 3. What is the project’s simple rate of return?

Answers

The project's net present value is -$235,166.09. The project's internal rate of return is approximately 6%. The project's simple rate of return is approximately 12.89%.

To calculate the project's net present value (NPV), we need to discount the project's net cash flows to their present values and subtract the initial investment. In this case, the project has a net operating income of $490,000 each year for five years.

We discount these cash flows using the company's discount rate of 18%. Calculating the present value of each cash flow and summing them, we find that the NPV is -$235,166.09.

The project's internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate at which the project's NPV becomes zero. To find the IRR, we calculate the discount rate that makes the present value of the cash inflows equal to the initial investment. Using the net cash flows and the initial investment, we find that the project's IRR is approximately 6%.

The project's simple rate of return is calculated by dividing the average annual net operating income by the initial investment. In this case, the average annual net operating income is $490,000, and the initial investment is $3,800,000. Dividing these values, we find that the project's simple rate of return is approximately 12.89%.

These calculations help evaluate the financial viability of the capital budgeting project and assist in decision-making processes.

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Consider the security market line shown below. = 0.06 +
0.04 a) What is the market portfolio rate of return? What is the
risk-free rate? ] b) Assume that over the same period two mutu

Answers

a) In the given equation for the Security Market Line (SML), the market portfolio rate of return is represented by the term "0.06". Therefore, the market portfolio rate of return is 0.06 or 6%.

The risk-free rate is not explicitly mentioned in the given information, so we cannot determine it based on the provided equation. The risk-free rate is typically represented by the intercept term in the SML equation. It is the return expected from an investment with zero risk, such as a government bond. To determine the risk-free rate, additional information is needed.

b) The question regarding two mutual funds appears to be incomplete. Please provide the missing information or complete the question so that I can assist you further.

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The CEO of Obelix Ltd, a utility firm specializing in supplying green energy to households, is interested in the impact of adjusting the firm's borrowing policy to improve its financial strength in light of the competition in the energy sector. The CEO asks you to provide a report that you will present to the board to offer workable financial policies for the firm. The following table details the firm's current balance sheet. Note that there is no information about the cost of equity capital. Value Cost of capital Total assets £120m 10% Debt £40m 4% Equity £80m ? The CEO realizes that by increasing the firm's debt burden, the cost of debt capital will rise as there is an increase in the bankruptcy risk of the firm. The following table estimates the link between the debt-equity ratio and the cost of debt capital. Debt-Equity ratio Cost of debt 1/2 4.00% 5/7 4.02% 6/6 4.05% 7/5 4.10% 8/4 4.50% The market data are as follows: The risk-free rate 3% The average return on the market index 7% Your report should address the following points. a) What is the current cost of equity capital? (5 marks) b) Work out the cost of equity for a debt-equity ratio of one, as well as a debt-equity ratio of two. State the assumptions you make. (10 marks) c) Explain what assumptions underpin the trade-off theory of borrowing. Under what conditions should the firm increase its borrowing according to this theory (15 marks) d) The board is interested in learning about the various options for using borrowing. Outline the difference between, and the relative benefits of, loans and bonds, fixed-rate and variablerate debt, and domestic-issued bonds and Eurobonds.

Answers

a) To determine the current cost of equity capital, we can use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The CAPM formula is as follows:

Cost of Equity = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)

b) To calculate the cost of equity for different debt-equity ratios, we need to make assumptions about the beta coefficient. The beta coefficient measures the sensitivity of a company's stock returns to market movements. Assuming a beta coefficient of 1 for the current debt-equity ratio, we can calculate the cost of equity as follows:

Cost of Equity (Debt-Equity ratio of 1) = Risk-Free Rate + 1 * (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)

For a debt-equity ratio of 2, we assume a higher beta coefficient of 1.5:

Cost of Equity (Debt-Equity ratio of 2) = Risk-Free Rate + 1.5 * (Market Return - Risk-Free Rate)

c) The trade-off theory of borrowing assumes that there is an optimal level of debt for a firm. It suggests that firms balance the benefits of tax shields and financial distress costs when making borrowing decisions. The assumptions underlying this theory include:

1. Tax Shields: Debt financing provides tax advantages as interest payments are tax-deductible. The higher the debt level, the greater the tax shield benefit.

2. Financial Distress Costs: Increasing the debt level increases the risk of financial distress. Financial distress costs include bankruptcy costs, agency costs, and potential loss of reputation and business opportunities.

According to the trade-off theory, a firm should increase its borrowing up to the point where the marginal benefit of the tax shield equals the marginal cost of financial distress. Beyond that point, further debt increases the financial distress costs and may outweigh the tax benefits.

d) Loans and bonds:

Loans are agreements between a borrower and a lender, typically with specific repayment terms and interest rates. Bonds, on the other hand, are debt instruments issued by corporations or governments to raise capital. Bonds are typically traded in the market and have fixed interest rates and maturity dates.

Fixed-rate and variable-rate debt:

Fixed-rate debt has a predetermined interest rate that remains constant over the life of the debt. Variable-rate debt, also known as floating-rate debt, has an interest rate that fluctuates based on a reference rate, such as LIBOR or a government bond yield.

Domestic-issued bonds and Eurobonds:

Domestic-issued bonds are issued in the country's domestic market and are denominated in the local currency. Eurobonds are bonds issued in a currency different from the currency of the country where the bond is issued. Eurobonds are usually issued in international markets and provide access to a broader investor base.

The choice between loans and bonds, fixed-rate and variable-rate debt, and domestic-issued bonds and Eurobonds depends on factors such as market conditions, interest rate expectations, investor preferences, regulatory considerations, and the firm's specific financing needs and objectives. Each option has its advantages and considerations in terms of cost, flexibility, market access, and risk exposure.

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John deposited $1,400 into the checking account, if the reserve ratio is 15%, what is the required reserve and excess reserve?

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John deposited $1,400 into the checking account, if the reserve ratio is 15% then the required reserve is $210 and the excess reserve is $1,190.

The required reserve can be calculated by multiplying the deposit amount ($1,400) by the reserve ratio (15%). In this case, 15% of $1,400 is $210, which represents the portion of the deposit that banks are required to hold as reserves.

The excess reserve is the difference between the total deposit and the required reserve. In this case, the excess reserve is $1,190 ($1,400 - $210). It represents the amount of funds that banks can lend out or invest beyond what is required as reserves.

The reserve ratio is a percentage set by the central bank that determines the portion of customer deposits that banks must hold as reserves. By setting a reserve ratio, the central bank aims to maintain stability in the banking system and control the money supply in the economy. Banks are required to keep the specified percentage of deposits as reserves, while the remaining funds can be used for lending and other activities.

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One year ago, your friend purchased 105shares of PantherCo. stock for $2,040.28. The stock does not pay any regular dividends but it did pay a special dividend of $0.33 a share last week. This morning, she sold her shares for $31.1 a share. What was the total percentage return on this investment? Answer as a percentage (e.g. 0.01 is 1.0%) but without the percentage (%) symbol.

Answers

The total percentage return on this investment is approximately 61.76%.

To calculate the total percentage return on the investment, we need to consider the initial investment, any special dividends received, and the final selling price.

Initial investment: 105 shares purchased for $2,040.28

Special dividend received: $0.33 per share

Selling price: $31.1 per share

First, let's calculate the total amount received from the special dividend:

Special dividend received = 105 shares * $0.33 per share = $34.65

Next, let's calculate the total selling price:

Total selling price = 105 shares * $31.1 per share = $3265.50

Now, let's calculate the total return, which is the sum of the special dividend and the selling price, minus the initial investment:

Total return = Special dividend received + Total selling price - Initial investment

Total return = $34.65 + $3265.50 - $2040.28 = $1260.87

Finally, let's calculate the percentage return on the investment:

Percentage return = (Total return / Initial investment) * 100

Percentage return = ($1260.87 / $2040.28) * 100 ≈ 61.76

Therefore, the total percentage return on this investment is approximately 61.76%.

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Regardless of whether a company adopts proactive or reactive public relations, no company has total control over public opinion about its brand. Critically examine this statement and provide justification why this seems to be the case.

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Regardless of whether a company adopts proactive or reactive public relations, no company has total control over public opinion about its brand.The statement is true.

Public opinion is formed by a complex interplay of various factors, including personal experiences, media coverage, social media conversations, word-of-mouth, and individual perceptions. While proactive public relations efforts can help shape and influence public opinion through strategic communication, storytelling, and brand management, they cannot guarantee complete control over how the public perceives a company. Similarly, reactive public relations aims to address and mitigate negative perceptions or crises, but it cannot entirely dictate how the public will react or interpret the company's response.

Public opinion is subjective and can be influenced by external factors beyond a company's control. Individuals may form opinions based on their own biases, beliefs, or experiences, which may not align with a company's intended message. Additionally, public opinion can be swayed by external events, competitive actions, or unforeseen circumstances, making it challenging for a company to maintain absolute control over public perception.

While proactive and reactive public relations efforts are crucial for managing and influencing public opinion, no company can have complete control over how the public perceives its brand. Companies can only strive to shape public opinion by consistently delivering positive experiences, engaging in transparent communication, and effectively managing their reputation.

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ignores the error variance increase because it treats both regressors as _____. a. independent b. nonrandom c. dependent d. random

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The error variance increase is ignored because it treats both regressors as (A) independent.

In regression analysis, the error variance refers to the variability or dispersion of the residuals, which are the differences between the observed values and the predicted values. When assessing the impact of regressors on the dependent variable, it is important to consider their relationship with the error term.

If the error variance increases and this increase is ignored, it implies that both regressors are treated as independent variables. In other words, it assumes that the errors or disturbances in the model are not affected or influenced by the regressors.

This assumption of independence between regressors and error term is a key assumption in classical linear regression models. It implies that the errors are unrelated to the predictors and do not exhibit any systematic pattern or correlation with them. By treating the regressors as independent, the analysis assumes that the errors are purely random and do not depend on the values of the predictors.

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The market interest rate is 8 percent and is expected to stay at that level. Consumers can borrow and lend all they want at this rate. Would you prefer a $500 rebate on an $8,000 car or one year of fi

Answers

To determine whether a $500 rebate on an $8,000 car or one year of free financing is more advantageous, we need to compare the present value of the two options.

For the $500 rebate on the car, the present value would be the current value of $500 discounted at the market interest rate of 8 percent. Assuming the rebate is received immediately, the present value would be:

PV(rebate) = $500 / (1 + 0.08)^1 = $500 / 1.08 = $462.96

For one year of free financing, we need to consider the cost of financing the car at the market interest rate. The cost of financing is the interest paid on the loan for the car over one year. Since the interest rate is 8 percent, the cost of financing would be:

Cost of financing = $8,000 * 0.08 = $640

Therefore, the present value of one year of free financing would be $640 discounted at the market interest rate:

PV(financing) = $640 / (1 + 0.08)^1 = $640 / 1.08 = $592.59

Comparing the present values, we can see that the $500 rebate on the car has a higher present value ($462.96) compared to one year of free financing ($592.59). Therefore, from a financial standpoint, it would be more advantageous to choose the $500 rebate on the $8,000 car.

Please note that other factors such as personal preferences, financial circumstances, and individual goals may also influence the decision-making process.

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a country removes all tarrifs and import quotas on sugar. what is the new domestic price?

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The new domestic price of sugar after removing all tariffs and import quotas will depend on various factors such as the global market price, domestic supply and demand conditions, and the competitiveness of domestic producers.

In general, when tariffs and import quotas are eliminated, it allows for increased competition from foreign sugar producers. If the global market price for sugar is lower than the previous domestic price (including tariffs), it is likely that the new domestic price will decrease as domestic consumers can now access cheaper imported sugar. However, if domestic sugar producers are able to compete effectively or if there are other factors that limit the impact of imports, the new domestic price may not change significantly.

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Assume the inflation rate in 2012 is 1.3 percent. If the nominal GDP grew 3.5 percent and nominal wages grew 2.6 percent, what are the approximate real growth rates of GDP and wages?
2.00%; 0.80%
3.05%; 0.90%
2.10%; 1.10%
2.20%; 1.20%
2.20%; 1.30%

Answers

The approximate real growth rate of GDP can be calculated using the formula: Real GDP growth rate = Nominal GDP growth rate - Inflation rate. Therefore, the real growth rate of GDP in 2012 would be 3.5% - 1.3% = 2.2%.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.20%; 1.30%. This question requires knowledge of how to calculate real growth rates using nominal GDP and wage growth rates and the inflation rate. Real growth rates are important as they take into account the effect of inflation on nominal growth rates and provide a more accurate measure of economic performance. In this case, the inflation rate in 2012 was 1.3%, which needs to be subtracted from the nominal GDP and wage growth rates to calculate the real growth rates. The approximate real growth rates of GDP and wages are 2.20% and 1.30%.

In order to find the real growth rates of GDP and wages, we need to take the nominal growth rates and adjust them for inflation. Subtract the inflation rate from the nominal GDP growth rate: Real GDP growth rate = Nominal GDP growth rate - Inflation rate Real GDP growth rate = 3.5% - 1.3% = 2.20% Subtract the inflation rate from the nominal wage growth rate: Real wage growth rate = Nominal wage growth rate - Inflation rate Real wage growth rate = 2.6% - 1.3% = 1.30% Therefore, the approximate real growth rates of GDP and wages are 2.20% and 1.30%, respectively. Similarly, the approximate real growth rate of wages can be calculated using the formula: Real wage growth rate = Nominal wage growth rate - Inflation rate.

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