please help (there’s a picture)

Answer:

angles 2 and 10 are corresponding Angles while angles 6 and 11 are alternate Angles

Answer:

1. False   Same side exterior angles refers to same side transversal An example; opposite ends both same side of transversal. see 2nd attachment.

2. False   interior alternate are both interior alternate on a Z 3 would be alternate with 6 as both are within the z and diagonally opposite at ends of the z shape.

3. True  (yes both same sides of transversal one is left of parallel line the other is left of the next parallel.

4. False ( 12 is only alternate with 1 as alternate is within the z shape as exterior and opposite sides of the transversal)

Step-by-step explanation:

Alternate Interior Angles – Alternate interior angles are the pair of angles on the inner side of the two parallel lines but on the opposite side of the transversal. Alternate Exterior Angles – Alternate exterior angles are the pair of angles on the outer side of the two parallel lines but on the opposite side of the transversal

Same side exterior angles - are seen on the blue spots on the 2nd diagram transversal

Answer:

f(5)=

[tex] = 4x - 5 \\ = 4 \times 5 - 5 \\ = 20 - 5 \\ = 15[/tex]

Answer:

a and c

Step-by-step explanation:

The bag of dog food would last for 21 days.

The bag contains 42 cups of dog food. If the dog eats [tex]2\frac{1}{3}[/tex] cups everyday, the amount of cup in the bag decreases by [tex]2\frac{1}{3}[/tex] cups everyday. This can be represented with this expression: 42 - [tex]2\frac{1}{3}[/tex]d. Where d represents the number of days.

In order to determine the number of days in which the bag would be emptied, this equation can be used:

Number of days the dog food would last = number of cups in the cup / amount the dog eats each day

42 ÷ [tex]2\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

42 ÷ [tex]\frac{7}{3}[/tex]

42 x [tex]\frac{3}{7}[/tex] = 21 days

To learn more, please check: https://brainly.com/question/11801850?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

What are they making you do

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

34.4%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: I'm almost 100% its -58

Answer:

the distributive property

Step-by-step explanation:

it allows us to multiply each term of the first polynomial by each term of the second

PLS mark Brianliest

Answer:

y = -3/4x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

y = -3/4x + b

5 = -3/4(-4) + b

5 = 3 + b

2 = b

Answer:

81.75

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the median of all the answers.

78.25,  77.75, and 84 = 80 (median)

now that we know 80 is the median, we will add it to our solution.

And still, there is no OTHER TEST in to make this stay 80.

78.25, 77.75, 84, and 80 = 79.125

since this is incorrect, we go higher.

78.25, 77.75, 84 and 81 = 79.625

since this is also incorrect, we go higher.

78.25, 77.75, 84 and 82 = 80.125

since this is higher and incorrect, we will go lower to 81.5.

78.25, 77.75, 84 and 81.5 = 79.875

since this is lower AND 82 is not the correct solution, we will go up by 0.25.

78.25, 77.75, 84 and 81.75 = 80

To check, we will do the problem again.

78.25, 77.75, 84 and 81.75 = 80

So, the solution is 81.75

Answer:

A) would keep ball and end with ball

B) would get first down but lose ball if yards aren't gained

C) would get first down but lose ball if yards aren't gained

Step-by-step explanation:

this question really doesn't make sense, most would end with a first down and have one more play to make up

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of people who entered the drawing = 10

Number of prizes = 3

Number of ways to award the prize = 720 ways

The total number of ways that 3 prizes can be awarded to the 10 people can be determined as:

10*9*8 = 720

The total number of ways in which I win the first prize and my mom wins the second prize would be 1*1*8 = 8

Thus the probability that I win the first prize and my mom wins the second prize would be 8/720

Answer:

Interval Notation : ( -3, ∞)

Step-by-step explanation:

graph:

Answer:

6y + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

33.333

Step-by-step explanation:

I looked up the answer

Answer:

x=26.6 when y=8

Step-by-step explanation:

y=Kx, k=y/x, when y is 3 and x is 10,

k=3/10= 0.3

but when y is 8, x will be given by

x=y/k

x=8/0.3

x=26.6 approximately 27

Answer:

[tex]3 \frac{11}{27} \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](2a - \frac{1}{3} ) \div \frac{b}{15} \\ (2 \times - \frac{3}{5} - \frac{1}{3} ) \div \frac{ - 6.75}{15} \\ ( - \frac{6}{5} - \frac{1}{3} ) \div \frac{ - 6.75}{15} \\ ( - \frac{6 \times 3}{5 \times 3} - \frac{1 \times 5}{3 \times 5} ) \div \frac{ - 6.75}{15} \\ ( \frac{ - 18 - 5}{15} ) \div \frac{ - 6.75}{15} \\ - \frac{23}{15} \div \frac{ - 6.75}{15} \\ - \frac{23}{15} \times - \frac{15}{6.75} \\ \frac{23}{6.75} \\ \frac{23 \times 100}{6.75 \times 100} \\ \frac{2300}{675} = 3 \frac{11}{27} \\ [/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i can ans it

(-4,-1,-12)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  $750

Step-by-step explanation:

The total store area in the building is ...

  2500 +625 +625 +2500 = 6250 . . . . square feet.

Then the fraction that can be allocated to store C is ...

  (625 ft²)/(6250 ft²) = 0.1

The maintenance fee allocated to store C should be ...

  0.1 × $7500 = $750

Step-by-step explanation:

the key is x = 0.

also I see in the first table no "run-away" effect of some values, so my first suspicion is : it is linear.

let's test it.

a linear function is a line :

y = ax + b

remember, x = 0 is a key element.

y = a×0 + b

-3 = a×0 + b

-3 = b

so, we know, the line function is

y = ax - 3

now, for the a. let's use the next xy pair (1, 1).

1 = a×1 - 3

4 = a

aha ! our line function is therefore

y = 4x - 3

verify with the next 2 points (2, 5) and (3, 9)

5 = 4×2 - 3 = 5 correct

9 = 4×3 - 3 = 9 correct

linear type and equation confirmed.

the second table :

yes, we see relatively big y values compared to the x values.

and the y values follow the powers of 2

so it seems to to be exponential.

64 = 2⁶

32 = 2⁵

16 = 2⁴

8 = 2³

so, while x increases, the powers of 2 decrease. so, we must build something like y = 2^x, but it must run contrary to the increase in x.

the old trick : c-x.

again, x= 0 is key. when x = 0 we get the biggest y (64). that means that gives us c.

64 = 2^(c-x) = 2^(c-0) = 2^c = 2⁶

=> c = 6

so, we suspect the exponential function

y = 2^(6-x)

let's verify with the other points

(1, 32)

32 = 2^(6-1) = 2^(5) = 32 correct

(2, 16)

16 = 2^(6-2) = 2^(4) = 16 correct

(3, 8)

8 = 2^(6-3) = 2^(3) = 8 correct

so, yes, it is the exponential function

y = 2^(6-x)

thae answer is something true

Answer:9/16

Step-by-

its 9/16 because in total there 16 pens so the  the probabillty of getting a red  and blue pen is combined the amount there is and you put the total number  of pens as the denominator

Answer:

you need 13.5 water stations

Step-by-step explanation:

1 km = 1000 meters

5km = 5000 meters

(5,000m / 400m) + 1  = 13.5

Answer:

(3x)¹²

Step-by-step explanation:

(3x³)⁴ is in form of (e³)⁴ which can be written as e³×⁴

= e¹²

so (3x³)⁴ can be written as (3x)¹²

Answer:

3x¹²

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the power rule of exponents, to simplify a power of a power, you multiply the exponents and keep the base the same. In this case, 3 and 4 are the exponents. 3 times 4 is 12. So the answer would be 3x to the power of 12.

(3x³)⁴

3x³*⁴

3x¹²

[tex]\sf 1) \ \large \boldsymbol {} \displaystyle 2 \frac{33}{40} +4\frac{3}{8} =2+\frac{33}{40}+4+\frac{3}{8}^{/5} =6+\frac{33+15}{40} = \\\\\\ 6\frac{48}{40} =7\frac{8}{40} =\boxed{7\frac{1}{5} } \\\\\\\\ 2) \ 2\frac{3}{8} +1\frac{1}{3} =2+1+\frac{3}{8}^{/3}+\frac{1}{3} ^{/8} =3+\frac{9+8}{24} =\boxed{3\frac{17}{24}} \rm \ cups[/tex]

Answer:

-12

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 + -9 = 12

hope this helps

Answer:

-12

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 + -9

turns into

-3 - 9

Which means on the number line, we start at -3 and move to the left 9 units.

When we move to left on the number line by 9, we are at -12.

Which means -3 - 9 (-3 + -9) = -12