Interpret Figure 6 and predict the general growth trend for steelhead trout in a stream that is 22 degrees C

Answers

Answer 1

The general trend of the growth of the steelhead trout in the 22°C stream will be limited when figure 6 is interpreted.

What is Temperature?

This is referred to as the degree of hotness or coldness of a substance and is influenced by heat energy. It can be measured using a thermometer and its SI unit is kelvin.

The interpretation of the figure 6 provided in the question means that that the general trend of the growth of the steelhead trout in the 22°C stream will be limited. This also means that the level of growth is at a controlled stage.

This is because the trout in question are in the zone of physiological stress at the temperature of 22°C in the stream when observed and is therefore the reason why limited was chosen as the most appropriate choice.

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Interpret Figure 6 And Predict The General Growth Trend For Steelhead Trout In A Stream That Is 22 Degrees

Related Questions

Bohr’s ""planetary model"" states that electrons are in specific energy levels or ""orbits"" around the nucleus. Explain how this is not possible using heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.

Answers

The speed and precise location of the electrons as they passed through the atom cannot be determined in accordance with Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.

Bohr believed that electrons traveled along circular routes as they orbited the nucleus; but, in the contemporary understanding, atomic electron structure is more akin to three-dimensional standing waves.

Rutherford's theory of the atom was expanded upon by Bohr. The majority of the atom's mass is concentrated there, in the region we now refer to as the nucleus, and electrons form a sort of cloud around the positive mass. The model's explanation utilizing the quantified energy was Bohr's most important contribution. He thought that electrons traveled in a circle around the nucleus with quantized potential and kinetic energy.

In theory, it is still thought that the model's quantification component is accurate. The concept of circular orbits for electrons is the major issue.

The Heisenberg uncertainty principle, which states that it is impossible to know a particle's position and momentum at the same time, is not satisfied by this. It also fails to account for the fact that atoms are arranged in three dimensions. The 3D structure of an atom is unlikely to exist if the orbitals are circular.

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How would you describe what a shale with ammonite looks like?

Answers

Answer: The color-producing shell layer of Ammolite is usually very thin (often less than one millimeter) and attached to a dark gray to brown base of shale or siderite. Exceptional pieces can be cut into gems without stabilization.

Explanation:

The color-producing shell layer of Ammolite is usually very thin (often less than one millimeter) and attached to a dark gray to brown base of shale or siderite. Exceptional pieces can be cut into gems without stabilization.

Ammolite triplet

Most Ammolite is used to produce triplets. These are made by backing the fragile iridescent material with a thin slab for stability and topping it with a transparent cover for protection.

Clear quartz or spinel can be used for the transparent cover. Black shale or another material can be used for the backing. Some Ammolite is made into doublets, which only requires adding a backing or transparent cover as needed. Many stones are impregnated with epoxy for stability.

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which of the following statements among a - d is false? a. an antimicrobial agent exhibiting bacteriostatic activity should always show a decrease in viable count. b. in terms of killing effect, ionizing radiation like gamma rays is generally more effective than non-ionizing radiation such as uv light. c. implementing cold temperatures for food preservation has a bacteriostatic effect rather than a bacteriocidal effect. d. disinfection is not a sterilization process. e. none of a - d is false; all are true

Answers

Among the following statements, option e is correct that is all the given statements are true.

In option a, bacteriostatic means a state of preventing the growth of bacteria, thus an antimicrobial agent persisting in this quality will decrease the growth of bacteria which is the decreased viable count. In option b, Gamma radiations are ionizing radiations but UV- radiations are non-ionizing radiation thus, gamma radiations are more harmful than UV- radiation.

In option c, Food preservation at a cold temperature gives a dormant state to bacteria thus the growth of bacteria is bacteriostatic, and not bacteriocidal. In option d, Disinfection is different from sterilization, they both are decontamination process where disinfection is the process of killing and sterilization is the process of killing.

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A bacterium converts light energy into chemical energy.

A. cellular respiration
B. glycolysis
C. photosynthesis

Answers

According to the research, the correct answer is C. A bacterium converts light energy into chemical energy represents the photosynthesis process.

What is photosynthesis?

It is the process by which light energy is used for the synthesis of carbohydrates from CO2 and a reducing molecule.

In this sense, in nature there is a great diversity of photosynthetic bacterium, which obtain their energy from light to grow through the manufacture of sugars through chemical reactions.

Therefore, we can conclude that some bacteria are photosynthetic microorganisms capable of converts light energy to form sugars for energy.

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suppose you examine a population of randomly-mating organisms and find that its actual genotype frequencies are not those predicted by hardy-weinberg equilibrium. what conclusion should you draw?

Answers

When the five requirements listed below are met, the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium asserts that perhaps the allelic frequency of organisms remains constant from generation to generation.The five conditions are.:

1) Large population size

2) Random mating

3) Sexual reproduction is necessary

4) No migration

5) No evolution (no natural selection)

If any of these five conditions is violated, Hardy Weinberg equilibrium cannot be used to forecast genotype frequencies.

Option-d evolutionhas occurred is the right answer since it violates the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium criteria.

What is Hardy-Weinberg principle?

The Hardy-Weinberg principle, also known as the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, model, theorem, or law in population genetics, holds that in the absence of additional evolutionary factors, allele and genotype frequencies in a population would remain constant from generation to generation.

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Suppose you are given two liquids and told that one
is a compound and the other is a mixture. How might you determine
which was which? Describe one method you could use.

Answers

By using the distillation process, we can discriminate between a chemical and a solution. Distillation can be used to separate elements, however a compound cannot be separated in this way.

What is explain distillation?

Distillation is a process that turns a liquid into a vapour, which is then condensed back into a liquid state. The simplest illustration of it is when steam from a kettle condenses into drops of distilled water that are left on a cold surface.

Why is distillation used?

A chemical is purified through distillation by being separated from a non-volatile or less-volatile substance. Because various compounds frequently have different boiling points, when a mixture is distilled, the components frequently separate from the mixture.

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thanks to a novel recessive mutation, a certain plant species has begun to invade colder arctic regions outside of its normal range. however, this cold-tolerant mutation has not yet become fixed in the population. a second mutation arises that promotes self-pollination. do you predict that the self-pollination allele will be selected for in the arctic regions? why or why not?

Answers

         Plant cell death is the intracellular sequence of activities that ends the life processes of a plant cell. Plant cells can die through necrosis, apoptosis, or autophagy.

What happens to a plant eventually, causing it to die?

     Senescence describes all of the alterations that occur in a plant and ultimately result in the death of its cells, tissues, and ultimately the entire plant body. Even in extremely young, thriving plants, these alterations can be visible in a few cells.

         An embryo and endosperm, both of which are necessary for the growth of a viable seed, are produced in angiosperms as a result of double fertilization. Plants that are diploid create diploid embryos and triploid endosperm.

        Why does the photoperiodic route, which many plants utilize, control when flowers form? In this plant, temperature and day duration both affect flowering. Flower formation is being hindered by the warm environment and prolonged exposure to light.

       The aberrant transformation of floral components into leafy structures is known as phyllody. Although environmental variables that lead to an imbalance in plant hormones may also be to blame, phytoplasma or virus infections are the usual culprits.

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thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in metabolic rate of tissues that can result in certain effects. what are some of these effects? select all that apply.

Answers

Thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in metabolic rate of tissues that can result in certain effects such as:

A) Increased heart rate

C) Increased body temperature

D) Increased cardiac output.

What is a Hormone?

This is referred to as a chemical messenger which are produced by different types of glands and they are released directly into the bloodstream for action.

They control metabolic reactions and an example is the thyroid hormone which is located in the front of the neck. It controls growth and has other effects on the body such as increase in temperature and heart rate of the individual.

There is also an increase in the cardiac output due to the different reactions occurring which is therefore the reason why options A, C and D were chosen as the most correct choices.

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The full question is:

A nurse is describing the action of thyroid hormones to a client. The nurse would include information that thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in the metabolic rate of tissues that can result in which of the following? Select all that apply.

A) Increased heart rate

B) Decreased respiratory rate

C) Increased body temperature

D) Increased cardiac output

E) Decreased oxygen consumption

in the light dependent reaction of photosynthesis water is split, releasing high energy particles that pass down a gradient to produce energy in the form of atp. what are these particles called? group of answer choices photons protons electrons

Answers

Answer:

photons

Explanation:

protons and electrons are part of chemisty in elements

if the original dna sequence is 3' - gtt tac ctc tcc gac atc - 5' [template strand] 5' - caa atg gag agg ctg tag - 3' [coding/non-template strand] a point mutation occur and change the sequence to 3' - gtt tac atc tcc gac atc - 5' [template strand] 5' - caa atg tag agg ctg tag - 3' [coding/non-template strand] what type of mutation is this?

Answers

The given type of mutation is nonsense mutation which results from point mutation.

A nonsense mutation in a DNA sequence causes a premature stop codon, also known as a nonsense codon, in the transcribed mRNA as well as a shortened, ineffective, and typically nonfunctional protein product.

As was mentioned previously, a nonsense mutation happens when a stop codon replaces an amino acid's codon. A shortened and typically nonfunctional protein is the result of this mutation. By altering a tRNA molecule's anticodon sequence such that it recognizes the stop codon instead of the start codon, such a deficiency may be at least partially repressed.

Therefore, the given type of mutation is nonsense mutation which results from point mutation.

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a close look at almost any terrestrial community or ecosystem reveals that it consists of an ever-changing mosaic of patches of vegetation in different stages of .

Answers

the answer is succession


6. Write a chemical equation for cellular respiration.
coman
Label the molecules involved.

Answers

Answer:

Carbon dioxide+Water Carbon Hydrogen Oxygen+Oxygen

Explanation:

Its chemical equation isCO2 +H2O C6 H12O6 +6O2


During the low point in the sun's 11-year cycle, the gravitational field lines up with the poles, resulting in
✓ This often occurs
During that phase of the solar cycle, intense bursts of radiation cause
the sun

Answers

Answer: ending in slower time sunspots.

Explanation: ending cycle

Answer: I assume you are looking for the answers to this prompt:

During the low point in the sun’s 11-year cycle, the gravitational field lines up with the poles, resulting in sunspots. At the peak of the solar cycle, more sunspots tend to form. During that phase of the solar cycle, intense bursts of radiation cause solar flares. This often occurs with coronal mass ejections, which are eruptions of huge amounts of plasma from the sun.

Explanation:  Solar cycles occur in 11-year sequences where the sun's strength fluctuates based on solar plasma and magnetic field strengths.

How do you correctly interpret and construct a line graph and a bar graph?

Answers

The line segments' varying slope draws attention to changes, and patterns. Changes in the line for set of data to find trends and patterns. Lines of numerous measurements share the same trend and patterns.

What is bar graph explain?

Information is graphically represented in a bar graph. To represent value, it makes use of bars that stretch to various heights. Vertical bars, horizontal bars, grouped bars (several bars that compare values in a category), and stacked bars can all be used to construct bar graphs (bars containing multiple types of information).

Why do we use bar graph?

It is straightforward and quick to compare sets of data between several groupings using a bar diagram. The graph has discrete values on one axis and categories on the other. To demonstrate the connection between the two axes is the aim. Bar charts can also show significant alterations in data over time.

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(20!!!!!)Select the type of inheritance pattern that is best described below:

When graphed, the number of individuals of various heights forms a bell-shaped curve.

a
Pleiotropy
b
Polygenic Inheritance
c
Multiple Alleles
d
Codominance
e
Incomplete Dominance

Answers

Answer:

Polygenic Inheritance tend to result in a distribution that resembles a bell-shaped curve, with few at the extremes and most in the middle.

I'LL MARK BRAINLIST PLS HELP ME ITS DUE NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Birds (youngest)
Dinosaurs (younger than amphibians)
Amphibians
Corals(exists between trilobites and amphibians)
Trilobites(oldest)

Answer:

birds

dinosaurs

amphibians

corals

trilobites

Explanation:

Birds are the youngest which makes them the top layer (cus they died last )Means it is A

Trilobites is the oldest which makes them the last layer ,layerE

Dinosaurs is younger than birds so it is B

And amphibians is younger than dinosaur so is either C or D

Corals is in between Trilobites and amphibians Means that amphibians will be C and corals will be D.

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What does a carbon atom do during photosynthesis?

Answers

During photosynthesis, plants capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and water from the soil to carry out this process. What happens with carbon atoms is that they, with the sunlight action, will go to form glucose, whose chemical formula we can see it in the following:

[tex]6\text{ CO}_2\text{ + 6 H}_2\text{O }\rightarrow\text{ C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\text{ + 6 O}_{2\text{ }}[/tex]

What those 6 numbers tell us, is that for each 6 carbon dioxide atoms, plus each 6 water molecules, the process will be carried out, producing one glucose molecule, plus 6 oxygen molecules.

A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped?.

Answers

Answer:

A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result, which cell process will be stopped? Answer Osmosis

Explanation:

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2. Sedimentary rocks can exhibit some similar
characteristics as a result of the processes
that formed them. Which pair of effects
would be most likely to allow for the
formation of similar sedimentary rocks?
A. the effects of particle size and energy
B. the effects of constant motion and weathering
C. the effects of hot surface interaction and
weathering
D. the effects of precipitation and a uniform
particle size

Answers

The correct answer is option A. the effects of particle size and energy

What is sedimentary rocks?

In contrast to metamorphic and igneous rocks, which are generated deep beneath the Earth, sedimentary rocks are formed on or around the surface of the planet. Weathering, dissolution, precipitation, and lithification in the earth's crust are the primary causes of the creation of sedimentary rocks.

Sedimentary rocks are constructed from pre-existing rocks or remains of extinct creatures. They emerge from deposits that amass on the Earth's surface. Sedimentary rocks can have recognizable stratification or bedding. Many of the picturesque vistas of the desert southwest contain mesas and arches made of layered sedimentary rock.

By weathering preexisting rocks, transporting the weathering byproducts, and depositing them, sedimentary rocks are created. When rocks at the Earth's surface are exposed to the atmosphere (mostly in the form of rainfall) and the hydrosphere, numerous processes of physical disintegration and chemical degradation take place. These activities result in the formation of soil, unconsolidated rock debris, and substances dissolved in runoff and groundwater. The process of erosion involves moving weathering products from the weathering site, either as solid material or as dissolved components, to finally be deposited as sediment. Sediment is any unconsolidated accumulation of solid, weathered material.

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can someone help me pleaseeeeeeeeeeee

Answers

The greatest gravitational force is experienced when;

P = 6.0 * 10^24 KgQ = 625 Kgd = 25000 m

What is the gravitational force?

Let us recall that the gravitational force is the force that acts between any two objects that we find on the earth's surface. The gravitational force is an attractive force. We know that if we have two objects, then one object must effect a gravitational force of attraction on the other. The magnitude of the gravitational force of attraction can be obtained by the use of the formula;

F = Gm1m2/r^2

F = the gravitational force of attraction

G = gravitational constant

m1 and m2 = The masses of each of the objects

r = The distance between the objects that are found in the gravitational filed of the earth.

The larger the masses of the objects and the smaller the distance that the objects have between them, the greater the gravitational force between the objects.

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If the distance between Earth and the sun were doubled what would be the force of gravity between them​

Answers

Correct option is B)
Given,
Radius of rotation become double, a
2

=2a
1


By Kepler’s law, T
2
αa
3

a
1
3


T
1
2



=
a
2
3


T
2
2




T
2
2

=(
a
1


a
2



)
3
×T
1
2


T
2
2

=(
1
2

)
3
×T
1
2


T
2
2

=8×T
1
2


T
2
2

=
8

×365 days
T
2

=1032.37 days
Hence, 1032 days in year.

of the following, which phenotype would most likely be observed in mutants of e. coli lacking a key enzyme in the ed pathway? choose one: a. loss of ability to grow anaerobically b. inability to form biofilms c. lack of flagellar motility d. increased virulence e. reduced ability to colonize the mammalian gut

Answers

Phenotype would most likely be observed in mutants of e. coli lacking a key enzyme in the ed pathway is option b inability to form biofilms

The term "biofilm" describes the intricate, sessile colonies of bacteria that are either firmly embedded in an extracellular matrix or adhering to a surface.

An extracellular polymeric material matrix surrounds an assembly of surface-associated microbial cells that is known as a biofilm. Van Leeuwenhoek is credited with discovering microbial biofilms after he discovered bacteria on tooth surfaces using his crude microscopes. Heukelekian and Heller discovered the "bottle effect" for marine microorganisms, which states that the presence of a surface on which these organisms may cling significantly increased bacterial activity and growth. Zobell noticed that there were noticeably more bacteria on surfaces than there were in the surrounding environment (in this case, seawater). The electron microscope, which enables high-resolution photomicroscopy at far higher magnifications than the light microscope, would be necessary for a thorough analysis of biofilms

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Answer:

Explanation:

Option(A) reduced ability to colonize the mammalian gut is the correct answer.

E. coli uses the ED route to break down sugar acids present in the mucus of mammalian guts.

What does "ED pathway" refer to?

Pathway of Entner-Doudoroff

The metabolic process known as the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) Pathway is particularly significant in Gram-negative bacteria, some Gram-positive bacteria, and archaea.

In the ED pathway, glucose serves as the substrate, and pyruvate is produced because of a series of chemical events with the help of enzymes.

What role does the ED pathway play?

In the breakdown of gluconate (Gnt), the ED pathway enzymes Edd and Eda play important roles.

Numerous microbes can use gnt, a sugar acid present in the intestinal environment, as a source of energy.

the bacterium E. gnt is used by coli via the ED route.

What accomplishes the ED pathway?

The EMP pathway's initial steps, which include fructose derivatives, can be avoided by using the ED pathway, which offers a glycolytic shortcut.

Another glycolytic route that skips the transition from G-6-P to fructose-6-phosphate begins with the ED intermediate gluconate-6-P.

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Explain why chlorophyll might be limiting factor for some plants...

Answers

Answer:

Since photosynthesis cannot begin without light, it is the first limiting factor.

you do a mutant hunt to screen for histidine mutants in a fungus population and isolate 15 mutants. you find that the histidine phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15. you then organize the mutants based on complementation groups (groups that will complement each other) a) describe how you would determine the complementation groups for each mutant. b) explain what it means if two mutants are in the same complementation group as opposed to in different groups

Answers

A complementation group is made up of mutants and meaning of same complementation group can be described by an experiment of biosynthetic pathway of histidine.

The complementation test is used to determine whether the mutations are in different genes or the same gene.

a) The biosynthetic pathway of histidine is the subject of our experiment.

Histidine biosynthesis is a series of steps mediated by various enzymes whose codes are encoded by various genes. The next step in the pathway is determined by the product of one gene.

Therefore, mutants with a gene X mutation will be unable to synthesize histidine. Histidine is necessary for the growth of those mutants.

+ refers to prototrophs that can grow in minimal media; - refers to auxotroph that need histidine to grow (MM). When mutant A1 mated with itself, the resulting diploid remains auxotrophic due to its homozygous status for the defective allele.

The prototrophy was restored when mutant A1 and mutant A2 were mated, complementing each other.

The same holds true for the other mutants.

This allows us to determine which his-phenotype is recessive in mutants 1 through 14.

b) If a mutant has a mutation in gene X that codes for an enzyme A and another mutant has a mutation in gene Y that codes for an enzyme B. Since both genes are necessary for the histidine biosynthesis pathway, neither mutant can make histidine on its own. However, when mutations are combined, a mutant with a normal copy of gene X on one chromosome will produce ENZYME A, while a mutant with a mutant copy of ENZYME 2 They are grouped together as the same complementation.

c) Mutants that do not complement one another will also be placed in the same group (group 1): A1, A3, A5 group 2, A2, A4, A6 group 3, A7, A8 group 4, A9, and A10.

This makes a total of four complementation groups.

You do a second mutant hunt to screen for histidine mutants and isolate 15 mutants. You find that the his- phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15. You then organize the mutants based on complementation groups

a) Describe the experiment that you performed and the results that you obtained which allowed you to determine that the his-phenotype is recessive in mutants 1-14, but dominant in mutant 15

b) Describe how you would determine complementation groups for each of your mutants and explain what it means if two mutant are in the same complementation group as opposed to in different complementation groups

c) The following is the result of a complementation assay. Here (-) represent no growth on minimal media and (+) represent growth on minimal media. Based on the information provided, arrange the mutants into complementation groups. A1. A2 A3 A4 A5 A7 A8 A9 A10.

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which of the following is not true concerning all bacterial plasmids? choose one: a. they may exist in multiple copies in a single cell. b. they may contain antibiotic resistance genes. c. they may be transmitted horizontally from one bacterium to another. d. they are always linear dna.

Answers

Option D i.e. they are always linear DNA is not true concerning all bacterial plasmids.

Plasmids are crucial for bacterial evolution and adaptability to the environment because they contain genes that confer advantageous characteristics on the bacterial cell. Plasmids of many sorts can coexist in the same bacterial cell.

In every bacterial cell, plasmids are present by nature. All bacterial cells include plasmids, which are tiny, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules. These plasmids can independently reproduce because they are isolated from chromosomal DNA.

The plasmids contain genes for antibiotic resistance. Virulence Plasmids: The majority of the infection in the host body is caused by plasmids that contain viral genes. Degradative Plasmids: These plasmids include genes that cause the host genome to deteriorate.

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which statement about connective tissues is true? which statement about connective tissues is true? the matrix of connective tissue is composed of both a ground substance and a fibrous component all connective tissues are avascular connective tissues are named for their most apical layers neuroglia are cells found within connective tissues

Answers

The matrix of connective tissue is composed of both a ground substance and a fibrous component this statement about connective tissues is true.

In addition to holding structures together and providing support for organs and the body as a whole, connective tissues also function to repair damaged tissues, store fat, transport substances, and defend against disease. They exist everywhere over the body. There are four categories of connective tissues: connective tissue proper, blood, bones, cartilage, and connective tissue . because blood transports various materials and gases from one area of the body to another as a result of the heart's pumping function, blood is viewed as a connective tissue. Therefore, it joins many body tissues and organs, earning its name as a connective tissue. The connective tissue that is most broadly spread in an animal's body is called areolar tissue. It is located beneath the skin and acts as a scaffolding for the epithelium.

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results of cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation on genomic dna often reveal relatively small peaks of dna that separate from the main genomic dna peak and consist of 1,000s of short repetitive sequences referred to as

Answers

Results of cesium chloride density gradient centrifugation on genomic DNA often reveal relatively small peaks of DNA that separate from the main genomic DNA peak and consist of 1,000s of short repetitive sequences referred to as Satellite DNA.

What is the DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer composed of two polynucleotide chains that coil around each other to form a double helix carrying genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth and reproduction of all known organisms and many viruses.

The DNA is supposedly made of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. These building blocks are made of three parts:

a phosphate group, a sugar group and one of four types of nitrogen bases.

In conclusion, it is a fact that DNA contains the instructions needed for an organism to develop, survive and reproduce.

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What are the 3 domains of development in psychology

Answers

Answer:

physical, cognitive, and psychosocial development.

Explanation:

which structures are part of the basal ganglia? a globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, amygdala b caudate nucleus, putamen, fornix c putamen, amygdala, mammillary bodies d globus pallidus, substantia nigra, putamen

Answers

The globus pallidus, substantia nigra and putamen are the parts of the basal ganglia.

What is basal ganglia and what are the parts of basal ganglia?Basal ganglia are a group of nuclei responsible for specific functions and roles as other ganglia are.The motor functions are the responsibility of basal ganglia as these are the group of subcortical nuclei.Here in the question is asked the parts of basal ganglia and the answer would be globus pallidus, substantia nigra and putamen.The pallidum is the basal ganglia consisting of two nuclei , and the only basal ganglia consisting of two nuclei.Hence the structures and the parts of basal ganglia are globus pallidus, substantia nigra and putamen.

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Where did life first form?
A. In the atmosphere
B. In volcanoes
C. On land
D. In the oceans

Answers

Answer: D. in the oceans.

The ocean is the most likely answer to the question as there wasn't enough oxygen in the atmosphere, the land hadn't formed continents and wasn't mineralized enough. Of course, there are many other theories including one that suggests life started in muddy pools in the land warmed by volcanoes. So there really isn't a fixed answer, but I'm fairly sure it is D.

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