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1. Explain why the slope of line a is
6
13
12
11

Answer: x=-7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

All that u hav to do is 2 apply BODMAS rule. And it will be done. thanq

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11/4800

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=8

Step-by-step explanation:

hope i helped!!!

Answer:

61°

Step-by-step explanation:

180-58=122

122÷2=61

Answer:

it's the first option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

some thing is broken man

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

nonstatistical

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a great day and hope this helps

Answer:

statistical

Step-by-step explanation:

i did it

Answer:

B ≥ 209

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the equation - 25b + 525 ≥ 5750  .      

Comment if I solved it incorrectly ;-;  

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

mass of Freight car=25tons

the rate of filling is 1/3 ton per minute

let the time taken to fill the freight car be x

and the total mass after x minute be y

Hence the mass as a function of time is expressed as

y=25+1/3x----------1

mas of dump truck=55tons

rate of being emptied= 1/6 tons per minute

let the time taken to empty the dump truck be x

and the total mass after x minute be y

Hence the mass as a function of time is expressed as

y=55-1/6x----------2

Step two:

equating equations 1 and 2,

1. The tucks will weigh the same in

55-1/6x=25+1/3x

collect like terms

55-25=1/3x+1/6x

30=(2+1/6)x

30=3/6x

30=1/2x

30=0.5x

x=30/0.5

x=60min

or

1 hour

The tucks will weigh the same in  60minutes(1 hour)

2. How much coal will be in each truck when they weigh the same?

For the  train freight car, the weight after 60 minutes is

y=25+1/3(60)

y=25+20

y=55tons

55-25=20tons

There will be 20tons

For the  dump truck, the weight after 60 minutes is

y=55-1/6(60)

y=55-10

y=45tons

55-45=10tons

There will be 10tons

Answer:

1.99 * 10^4

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to write the addition in standard form

= (1 * 10^4) + (9 * 10^3) + (9 * 10^2)

= 10,000 + 9000 + 900

= 19,900

so the number in standard form is;

1.99 * 10^4

Answer:

A: 1/17 or decimal form: 0.058

B: 7/3 or mixed #: 2 1/3

C: 19/3 or mixed #:  6 1/3

D: 5/8

E: 9/14

F:2/3

G: 55/12 or mixed #: 4 7/12

H: 1/17

Step-by-step explanation:

Oh wait I think I know the answer, c.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

angle DAB = angle CBA

angle DBA = angle CAB

line AB = line AB

Since we know that the two angles and 1 side are the same on both triangle ADB and BCA, the property is angle side angle

Answer: That used to happen to me but if you answer peoples questions it doesnt do that anymore because you are helping out

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

you have to use ads wich is stupid

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]2.89\ \text{s}[/tex]

0.11 seconds

[tex]37.4\ \text{m}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]t_1[/tex] = Time taken by the pebble to hit the water

[tex]t_2[/tex] = Time taken by the sound to travel to the observer

[tex]t_1+t_2[/tex] = Time taken by the observer to listen to the splash after stone is thrown = 3 s

[tex]t_1=3-t_2[/tex]

a = g = Acceleration due to gravity = [tex]9.81\ \text{m/s}^2[/tex]

[tex]u_s[/tex] = Speed of sound = 340 m/s

The distance traveled by the pebble

[tex]s=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}at_1^2\\\Rightarrow s=0+\dfrac{1}{2}\times9.81(3-t_2)^2\\\Rightarrow s=4.905(9+t_2^2-6t_2^2)[/tex]

Distance traveled by the sound

[tex]s=u_st\\\Rightarrow s=340\times t_2[/tex]

The distance traveled by the sound and the pebble is equal

[tex]4.905(9+t_2^2-6t_2)=340\times t_2\\\Rightarrow 9+t_2^2-6t_2=\dfrac{340}{4.905}t_2\\\Rightarrow 9+t_2^2-6t_2=69.32t_2\\\Rightarrow t_2^2-75.32t_2+9=0\\\Rightarrow t_2=\frac{-\left(-75.32\right)\pm \sqrt{\left(-75.32\right)^2-4\times \:1\times \:9}}{2\times \:1}\\\Rightarrow t_2=75.2,0.11[/tex]

Since [tex]t_1+t_2=3[/tex] the value of [tex]t_2[/tex] cannot be greater than 3.

So, time taken by the sound to reach the observer is 0.11 seconds.

Time taken by the pebble to hit the water is [tex]t_1=3-t_2=3-0.11=2.89\ \text{s}[/tex]

Depth of the well is [tex]s=340t_2=340\times 0.11=37.4\ \text{m}[/tex]

Answer:

2 big

30 small

Step-by-step explanation:

possibility

Answer:

2$

Step-by-step explanation:

first you need to subtract the cost of the magazine from the total. now you have 8$ left, divide this by the number of candy bars, 4, and you get 2$.

don't forget to add the dollar sign, it might save you points

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[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{12} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1 \times 3}{8 \times 3} + \frac{1 \times 2}{12 \times 2} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{24} + \frac{2}{24} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{3 + 2}{24} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{R} = \frac{5}{24} \\ [/tex]

Inverse both sides

[tex] \frac{R}{1} = \frac{24}{5} \\ [/tex]

[tex]R = \frac{24 \times 2}{5 \times 2} \\ [/tex]

[tex]R = \frac{48}{10} \\ [/tex]

[tex]R = 4.8 \: \: Ω[/tex]

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The correct answer is (( B )) .

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Answer:  -a2 - 2ab - b2 + 25  =

 -1 • (a2 + 2ab + b2 - 25)

Final result :

 -a2 - 2ab - b2 + 25

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of her investment at the end of 7 years is $11804

The given parameters are

Principal, P = $5000

Rate, r = 4.5%

Time, t = 7 years

The value is then calculated as:

Value = P * P(1 + r)^t

So, we have:

Value = 5000 + 5000 * (1 + 4.5%)^7

Evaluate the expression

Value = 11804

Hence, the value of her investment at the end of 7 years is $11804

Read more about compound interest at:

https://brainly.com/question/24924853

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-intercept form is:

Points given:

y-intercept is

And the slope is:

So the line is:

Answer:

points are

slope =m

[tex]{:}\longrightarrow[/tex][tex]\sf m={\dfrac {y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}}[/tex]

[tex]{:}\longrightarrow[/tex][tex]\sf {\dfrax {-2-7}{8-0}}[/tex]

[tex]{:}\longrightarrow[/tex][tex]\sf {\dfrac {-9}{8}}[/tex]

y intercept:-

7

Hence the equation is

[tex]{:}\longrightarrow[/tex][tex]\sf y={\dfrac {-9}{8}}+7 [/tex]

Answer:  [tex]6x^2y^3[/tex]

Explanation:

The numbers 2 and 3 multiply to 6, so that's why the final coefficient is 6.

The x terms multiply to [tex]x*x = x^2[/tex]

The y terms multiply to [tex]y*y*y = y^3[/tex]

The exponent tells us how many copies of the base to multiply.

So overall, [tex]2*x*x*3*y*y*y = 6x^2y^3[/tex]

Answer:

1+x=b;b+x=c;c+x=d;d+x=89

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

720 divided by 90

Step-by-step explanation:

72 divided by 9 is 8. 720 divided by 9 is 80 because you're keeping the 0, but when dividing, take away the zeros if both numbers have a zero to make it easier

Answer:

Opposite sides are congruent

Step-by-step explanation:

First off the equals sign with the wave over it means congruent. It wouldn't be either answer with diagonals because the segments that are congruent are sides of the parallelogram not diagonals. Next even though the congruent sides are parallel by providing the information (AB being congruent to CD and AD bring congruent to CB) opposite are parallel wouldn't be the answer because of what you are given.

Sorry if its wordy I hope this helps : )

Answer:

3  1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

I used my calculator, but convert to the greatest common factor which is 15 and multiply, then simplify to 16/5 and turn to a proper fraction 3 1/5.

Answer:

=  16/5  =  3  1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 86.08, hope this helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$86.08

Step-by-step explanation:

If Dan makes $5.38 for HALF an hour how much does he make for a full hour? He makes $10.76 for an entire hour.

$10.76 x 8= $86.08

An exterior angle equals the sun of the two opposite inside angles:

5x = 120 + x

Subtract 1 x from both sides:

4x = 120

Divide both sides by 4:

X = 30

The answer is D. 30

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

y + 4 = -2(x - 5)

y + 4 = -2x + 10

y = -2x + 6