Which organism in the food web would be considered both a primary consumer and a secondary consumer?
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Related Questions
1. at 20 seconds into the race, anaerobic glycolysis is responsible for atp in muscle contraction, what would be the primary substrate fueling this system? why? 2. what is a by-product of anaerobic glycolysis? what is something you have heard about this by-product related to exercise and sport? 3. at 38.6 seconds, the aerobic is predominate. why would carbohydrates (glycogen) and not fats be the fuel source for atp synthesis? bonus: (1 point) feedback on watching an event to understand the energy systems rather than just reading about it.
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Here are the answers per question:
1. Whether glycolysis is conducted in anaerobic or aerobic conditions, glucose will serve as the substrate if at 20 seconds into the race, anaerobic glycolysis is responsible for atp in muscle contraction.
2a. Lactate is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis.
2b. Muscle aches from strenuous exercise, sports, and physical activity are some products of lactate. Additionally, it develops during anaerobic respiration.
3. Since carbohydrates take less oxygen than fats to produce the same quantity of energy, they are used as an energy source initially rather than fats. Therefore, all muscles use carbs as their main source of energy, with the exception of the heart muscle, which uses lipids.
When there is a shortage of oxygen (O2), glucose is converted to lactate by anaerobic glycolysis. Only brief, intensive activity can effectively produce energy through anaerobic glycolysis, which can last anywhere between 10 seconds and 2 minutes.
Compared to aerobic metabolism, this is substantially quicker. During a maximum exertion, the anaerobic glycolysis (lactic acid) system predominates for roughly 10 to 30 seconds.
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Amoebas are single celled organisms that take in particles, and sometimes smaller organisms, as food by enclosing the food particle
in its membrane. The amoeba requires energy for this process.
Which structure in an amoeba produces the energy it needs?
O vesicle
O nucleolus
O vacuole
O mitochondria
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Answer:
mitochondria
Explanation:
which structure in the figure would most likely be used to form muscles and connective tissue
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Connective tissue is found in bones and muscles. Sheets and fibres of muscle cells are braided together to form muscular tissue.
Why is connective tissue important?
Muscle is a distinct type of tissue found in animals that, when triggered, contracts to exert forces on various body parts. These sheets and fibres are collectively referred to as muscles, and they control both the movement of an organism as well as several other contractile functions.
Animals have one of three types of muscle, each adapted to a certain function. These muscles are similar in structure and function, despite slight variations. Muscle tissue is usually connected by the same nerve bundles and serves a single purpose.
Therefore, connective tissue is found in bones and muscles. Sheets and fibres of muscle cells are braided together to form muscular tissue.
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Discuss the important of abiotic factors for animals that live in the soil
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Answer:
Abiotic factors include water, sunlight, oxygen, soil and temperature. Water (H2O) is a very important abiotic factor – it is often said that “water is life.”
Explanation:
multiple select question select all that apply chargaff found that double-stranded dna contains approximately a 1:1 ratio of adenine and thymine, and approximately a 1:1 ratio of cytosine and guanine. what did james watson conclude from this observation? multiple select question. that cytosine in one strand of dna binds to adenine in the other strand that adenine in one strand of dna binds to thymine in the other strand that cytosine in one strand of dna binds to guanine in the other strand that thymine in one strand of dna binds to guanine in the other strand that dna is replicated in a semiconservative way
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This is the foundation of Chargaff's rule; due to their complementarity, a DNA molecule contains an equal amount of adenine and thymine, as well as guanine and cytosine.
It's interesting to note that Watson and Crick discovered that Adenine always pairs with Thymine and Cytosine always pairs with Guanine, proving Chargaff's rule that the ratio of [A] to [T] and the ratio of [G] to [C] are equivalent.
What does the Chargaff rule mean?
According to Chargaff's criteria, DNA from all cells of all creatures should have a 1:1 ratio of pyrimidine and purine bases. More specifically, the amounts of guanine and adenine should be equal to cytosine and thymine, respectively.
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The diagram below shows many of the processes involved in the carbon cycle. Which of the processes shown releases carbon into the atmosphere?
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The process which release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere are animal respiration, combustion of fossil fuels, volcanic activity, plant respiration. natural combustion.
What is volcanic activity?Gas emissions, non-explosive lava emissions, and extremely intense explosive bursts that may persist for several hours are all examples of volcanic activity. Volcano shapes and sizes are influenced by the types of eruptions in terms of relative quantities, types, and lava flow patterns.
An eruption of lava may include
an eruptive pulse, which is essentially an explosion with an eruption plume as well as lave surges without an explosion. From a few seconds to minutes, a pulse can occur.
a prolonged eruptive phase made composed of multiple eruptive pulses that may alternate between explosions and lava surges and continue anywhere from a few hours to days;
a single eruption or eruptive occurrence that lasts several days, months, or years and is made up of different phases (Fisher and Schmincke, 1984). For nine years, Paricutin, Mexico, was erupting. Over 2000 years have passed since the last eruption of Stromboli, Italy.
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I need help important test
i need the answers asap
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Answer:
Pretty sure the answer is D
Explanation:
pls help i don't understand it.
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Answer: A = organelle
B = cell
C = organ
D = organ system
E = organism
Explanation: Starting from A and going to E each level makes up the other level. For example cells are made up of organelles and organs are made up of cells
Grasslands are a very different ecosystem than a wetland. What ecosystem services do you think a grassland might provide for people?
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Grasslands provide ecosystem services like creation of habitat for wildlife animals, formation of soil, cycling of nutrients, carbon sequestration as well as air quality and water regulation.
Grasslands include an ecosystem which mainly comprises grasses due to the fact that it receives low precipitation and is mostly occupied by grazing animals. Grasslands occupy about 40% of the Earth's surface.
There are two types of grasslands, i.e. tropical as well as temperate. Tropical grasslands are present in Africa (Savannahs) as well as Australia. Temperate grasslands that are present in Eurasia are known as Steppes, while they are known as Prairies in North America and as Pampas in Argentina.
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Explain the relationship of the sun, earth, and moon and the concept of
gravitational pull.
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Answer:
Earth, Sun and Moon The mass of the sun is 1.99 x 10^30 kilograms, while the Earth weighs in at 6.0 x 10^24 kilograms. The gravitational constant is 6.67 x 10^-11 meter^3 / (kilogram – second^2). So the Earth and sun pull on each other with a force equal to 3.52 x 10^22 newtons.
Explanation:
Hope this helps lol
what is the primary function of sesamoid bones? protect internal organs. protect internal organs. support the body's weight. support the body's weight. act as levers for joints. act as levers for joints. provide stability in complex joints.
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The primary function of sesamoid bones is to act as levers for joints.
Leverage is one of the sesamoid bones' functions. The sesamoids can generate extra force when pushing off during a running or jumping action since they are connected to tendons in the foot.
When the sesamoids are harmed or inflamed, discomfort can be felt on the ball of the foot. The sesamoids are situated inside ligaments under the big toe.
Running and dancing are two activities that frequently cause the inflammation of the sesamoid bones, which is a disorder known as sesamoiditis. Stopping the injury-causing activity is usually the first step in the healing process. Elevating the injured foot may also be beneficial.
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Some steps in cell division are shown below:
1. Haploid chromosomes align in the center of the cell
2. Sister chromatids separate
3. The cell undergoes cytokinesis
4. Four new daughter cells, with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell form.
The steps above most likely describe?
__________________________________________________
Prophase
Meiosis 2
Interphase
Meiosis 1
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The steps above most likely describe Meiosis 2, which occurs after Interkinesis. Cell division is of two types: Mitosis and Meiosis.
The formation of four haploid daughter cells is the characteristic feature of Meiosis 2. Separation of sister chromatids, alignment of haploid chromosomes, and formation of four daughter cells occur in the second half of meiosis.
Ploidy level changes in heredity during the onset of Meiosis. Meiosis segregates and restores the ploidy level from one generation to another. Meiosis is a defining trait of haploid cells and haploid organisms. Crossing over leading to variations is an integral part of Meiosis.
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Answer:It is B
Explanation:
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. specialized cells such as white blood cells interact with foreign particles in the body. a particular cell belonging to this category recognizes bacteria and forms a covering around it, pinching off the vacuole. the cell then performs . the foreign particles recognized by the particular type of cells differ from the ones recognized by another type of white blood cell. this situation indicates that the receptors are .
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The cell then performs endocytosis, The foreign particles that this particular type of cell recognizes are distinct from those that another type of white blood cell recognizes. This suggests that the receptors are Specific.
The immune system's cells are called white blood cells. They aid in the body's defense against pathogens like bacteria that could otherwise cause harm. They do this by ingesting the bacteria in the form of vesicles. The term for this process is endocytosis.
White blood cell receptors are extremely specific. They can now identify specific foreign particles as a result of this. The adaptive immune system's B and T cells, for instance, are specific for foreign substances. To put it another way, particularly white blood cells are capable of recognizing particular foreign objects. This suggests that these cells have very specific receptors.
(complete question)
Specialized cells such as white blood cells interact with foreign particles in the body. A particular cell belonging to this category recognizes bacteria and forms a covering around it, pinching off the vacuole. The cell then performs 1(BLANK). The foreign particles recognized by the particular type of cells differ from the ones recognized by another type of white blood cell. This situation indicates that the receptors are 2(BLANK).
1.
a) endocytosis
b) exocytosis
c) diffusion
2.
a) the same for all cells
b) specific for the cells
c) never present on cells
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Which brand of ketchup tastes the best?
A. Scientific.
B. Non-scientific.
Answers
Answer: I'd say Heinz
Explanation:
One of the most popular brands of the ketchup world is Heinz, which is also said to be the best-tasting store-bought ketchup brand.
Many people have stated that Heinz has the best overall appearance, texture, and flavor that most people want in tomato ketchup.
Heinz ketchup features a thick and glossy texture, making Heinz ketchup perfect for dips and dolloping over food.
Moreover, Heinz ketchup has an ideal balance of tomato, sweet, and tangy flavors, which has made Heinz ketchup the top-selling ketchup brand.
Additionally, Heinz has created several ketchup products in its time, such as organic ketchup, no sugar added ketchup, and more.
Sometimes, Heinz got into making unique-looking ketchup such as purple ketchup, Chicago dog sauce, etc., but these variations did not stay in the market for long.
Answer: non-scientific but it would be more of an opinion than anything
Explanation:
consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. a second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. this is an example of a(n) .
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Consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. A second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. This is an example of a(n) (C) intergenic suppressor.
In a procedure known as synthetic rescue, a suppressor mutation is a second mutation that lessens or reverses the phenotypic consequences of an already existing mutant. Therefore, genetic suppression brings back the phenotype that existed before the initial background mutation.
By causing a mutation elsewhere in the genome, intergenic suppression mitigates the impact of a mutation in one gene. The second mutation does not occur on the identical gene as the first one. For finding and researching interactions between molecules, such as proteins, intergenic suppression is helpful.
For instance, a second mutation elsewhere in the genome that restores or creates a suitable alternative connection between those molecules can make up for a mutation that breaks the complimentary interaction between protein molecules.
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Question correction:
Consider a mutation that causes a decreased activity in a particular protein. A second mutation alters the function of another protein that participates in the same cellular pathway, thereby overcoming the defect in the first protein. This is an example of a(n):
A. Inversion mutation
B. Intragenic suppressor
C. Intergenic suppressor
D. Transversion mutation
which of the following processes contribute to the proton motive force during aerobic respiration? choose one or more: a.carbon fixation b.glycolysis c.electron transport system d.atp synthesis e.tca cycle f.fermentation
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Answer:
B, C, and E are correct.
how do you get chromosomes from your parents?
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Answer: The egg and sperm each have one-half of a set of chromosomes. The egg and sperm together give the baby the full set of chromosomes
Explanation:
Answer:
The egg and sperm each have one half of a set of chromosomes. The egg and sperm together give the baby the full set of chromosomes.
Explanation:
a phagehunter plates 400 phage particles onto a pyca plate with gordonia terrae. the burst size of the phage is 50 phage particles per round of replication. after three rounds of replication, how many phage particles are present on this plate?
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The number of phage particles present on this plate is 60000.
A phage particle consists of a single form of nucleic acid (both DNA or RNA) and a protein capsid that protects the genetic cloth. The vast majority of phages also possess a tail (fabricated from proteins) that enables the specific recognition of a receptor on the surface of the host bacterium.
No. Of phage particles in phage hunter = 400
No. Of phage particles replicate from one particle in 1 round= 50
No. of phage particles replicate from 400 particles in round = 50*400
= 20000 particles.
No. Of phage particles replicate from 400 particles in 3 rounds= 20000*3
= 60000
So after three rounds of replication, 60000 phage particles are present on this plate.
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what is the 1000 plant project? in three or four sentences summarise its findings
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Answer:
The 1,000 plants (1KP) project is an international multi-disciplinary consortium that has generated transcriptome data from over 1,000 plant species, with exemplars for all of the major lineages across the Viridiplantae (green plants) clade.
The process of transcription begins when
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Answer: Hope this helps have a good day
Explanation:
Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to a promoter sequence near the beginning of a gene (directly or through helper proteins). RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to make a new, complementary RNA molecule.
Transcription occurs in the three steps—initiation, elongation, and termination—all shown here. Step 1: Initiation. Initiation is the beginning of transcription. ... Step 2: Elongation. ... Step 3: Termination.
RNA polymerases begin transcription at DNA sequences called promoters. RNA polymerases end transcription at sequences called terminators. Transcription is the process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). DNA safely and stably stores genetic material in the nuclei of cells as a reference, or template
In a cardiac autorhythmic cell, which ion is responsible for the increase in membrane potential from threshold during an action potential?.
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In a cardiac autorhythmic cell, calcium ([tex]Ca^{2+}[/tex]) ion is responsible for the increase in membrane potential from threshold during an action potential.
A pacemaker potential is produced when an autorhythmic cell depolarizes spontaneously, which is a special skill. Once the threshold is achieved, an action potential is set off, starting with more depolarization and ending with the membrane potential being reversed.
A transient voltage change (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells is known as the cardiac action potential. Ion channels, which are proteins, are responsible for the passage of charged atoms (known as ions) between the interior and outside of the cell.
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. why do some microbiologists prefer to open and close quickly the culture tube instead of flaming its mouth prior and after transferring bacteria to or from it? multiple choice 3 because it reduces the amount of heat entering the tube because it is more likely to prevent contamination because it prevents spills more effectively because it eliminates the necessity of an open flame
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Some microbiologists prefer to open and close quickly the culture tube instead of flaming its mouth prior and after transferring bacteria to or from it because it prevents spills more effectively because it eliminates the necessity of an open flame
What are the risks associated with utilising direct burning to control bacteria?Contamination danger is increased. Not all contagious components will be promptly deactivated and destroyed when an item is exposed to open flames.
Flaming the Test Tube's Mouth: A convection current is produced when the mouth of a tube is passed past the flame of a Bunsen burner, forcing air out of the tube. By doing this, pollutants from the air are kept out of the tube.
Flaming is used to warm the bottle's opening and produce air convection currents that move away from the opening rather than sterilising it (i.e., updraft). The heated, rising air helps keep contaminants and other impurities out of the bottle.
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processes of photosynthesis and respiration.
Discuss the dynamics of each. In your discussion be sure to include ….
which kingdom undergoes each process(2pts),
reactants and products of each (2pts),
cell organelle involved in each process (2pts),
organ involved in respiration (2pts).
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Photosynthesis occurs in plants while respiration occurs in the animals.
What is photosynthesis?The term photosynthesis has to do with the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to give sugars and oxygen. This occurs in the chloroplast of the organisms that can be found in the plant kingdom. The leave is the organ of the plant where the photosynthesis takes place. Thus, the process is used by the plants to be able to manufacture there own food in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
Respiration occurs in the organisms that are found in the animal kingdom. The process of respiration occurs in the mitochondrion of the animal cell. We know that the process of respiration involves the combination of sugars and oxygen to give carbon dioxide and water. The lungs is the organ that is responsible for respiration in animals. This process is used by the animals to break down the complex sugar molecules so as to obtain the energy that is required for the animal to able to carry out the activities that is required for the animals to be able to carry out.
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Paleontologists find a fossil ape with long arms. What type of environment can they infer it inhabited?.
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Paleontologists discover a fossil ape with long palms. Woodland of environment can they infer it inhabited.
A paleontologist is a scientist who studies the records of existence on earth via fossil documents. Fossils are the proof of beyond existence on earth and may encompass those shaped by animals our bodies or their imprints (body fossils).
Paleontology is the look at historical life, from dinosaurs to prehistoric flora, mammals, fish, insects, fungi, or even microbes. Fossil proof exhibits how organisms changed through the years and what our planet become like long in the past.
Invertebrate Paleontology: a study of invertebrate animal fossils, which includes mollusks, echinoderms, and others. Vertebrate Paleontology: have a look at vertebrate fossils, from primitive fishes to mammals. Human Paleontology (Paleoanthropology): The look at prehistoric human and proto-human fossils.
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Paleontologists find a fossil ape with long arms. The environment can they infer it inhabited is Woodland.
A paleontologist is a scientist who researches the records of existence on earth via fossil report. Fossils are the evidence of beyond life on the planet and can consist of those fashioned from animal our bodies or their imprints (frame fossils).
Paleontology also has some overlap with archaeology, which commonly works with items made by means of human beings and with human remains, while paleontologists are interested in the characteristics and evolution of humans as a species.
Palenolology, like most technological know-how careers, isn't always particularly nicely paid. it's a lot of work, frequently in harsh conditions, and recognition is not going. Paleontologists ought to scramble for grants to fund their paintings, and frequently need to gift to a couple of sources to get the money for their expeditions.
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The diploid number of chromosomes for human skin cells is 46. If the cells undergo mitosis, what will be the diploid number of chromosomes in the new skin cells?.
Answers
Answer:
23 perhaps
Explanation:
not too sure..
Answer:
46
Explanation:
they stay the same
Privet shrubs and humans each have a diploid number of 46 chromosomes per cell. Why are the two species so dissimilar?.
Answers
Both the privet shrubs and humans have a diploid number of 46 chromosomes in a cell but yet they are so different. This is because the two species have very different genes.
In the question, it is stated and we know that both privet shrubs and humans have the same number of diploids. They both have a total of 46 chromosomes per cell. But, both of them don't have very similar properties when compared to each other genetically.
We know that Privet shrubs are plants and have different genes in their DNA as compared to human DNA. Their traits and characteristics differ from each other as both have different types of cells. The differences in the characteristics of their genes cause them to be very dissimilar from each other.
Hence, both species are dissimilar.
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Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?.
Answers
The venous end of the capillary is where reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place.
Osmotic pressure is the net force that propels reabsorption—the flow of fluid from the interstitial fluid back into the capillaries—into the body (sometimes referred to as oncotic pressure).
The blood's hydrostatic pressure is the reason behind this (which favors filtration out of the capillary is lowest in the venous end of the capillary.) Cationic Exchange Because capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP) exceeds blood colloidal osmotic pressure, net filtration occurs close to the arterial end of the capillary (BCOP).
Due to the fact that CHP = BCOP, there is no net fluid movement around the middle. Near the venous end, net reabsorption takes place because BCOP is higher than CHP.
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fibers from the olfactory bulb go directly to the amygdala, which sends smell information to the hypothalamus, thalamus, and frontal cortex. the neural connections from the amydala to the may explain why smells can instantly evoke an emotional memory. multiple choice question
Answers
Fibers from the olfactory bulb go directly to the amygdala, which sends smell information to the hypothalamus, thalamus, and frontal cortex. the neural connections from the amygdala to the hippocampus may explain why smells can instantly evoke emotional memory.
The olfactory bulb provides olfactory information to the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC), the hippocampus, and the amygdala for further processing, where it is involved in emotion, memory, and learning. The olfactory bulb, or smell center of the brain, receives scents directly without passing via the thalamus. The amygdala and hippocampus are closely related to the olfactory bulb, which may help to explain how quickly a specific memory or even a strong emotion may be evoked by smelling something.
Located in the central part of the temporal lobe, the hippocampus and amygdala are two brain regions that occasionally communicate with one another. Just anterior to (in front of) the hippocampus in the medial temporal lobe is where the amygdala is situated. The amygdala is a paired structure that is found in each hemisphere of the brain, much like the hippocampus.
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jane has a son who has duchenne muscular dystrophy, which is inherited as an x-linked recessive trait. at a molecular level, the disease is due to lack of the protein dystrophin. jane participates in a study to look at dystrophin levels in various muscles, so she has cells sampled from 10 different muscles. some cells make dystrophin, and some do not. an explanation for this finding is that
Answers
A possible explanation for this finding is that in some cells but not others, the x chromosome with the mutation is turned off. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a heritable condition that causes gradual muscle weakness, usually in boys.
- More about Duchenne muscular dystrophy :
- Frequent falls, difficulty getting up or running, a waddling gait, large calves, and learning impairments are all signs of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
- Although there is no cure, corticosteroids and physical therapy can help reduce symptoms and enhance quality of life.
- Researchers have discovered some of the mutated genes, which are brought on by a genetic mutation on one of the mother's X chromosomes. A genetic defect in the production of dystrophin, a protein that prevents muscle fibers from degrading when exposed to enzymes, results in Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
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Explain how the products of anaerobic respiration cause your cells to be less efficient
Answers
Products of anaerobic respiration, does not require oxygen, as a result lactic acid is produced, which lowers the pH of the cells and cause our cells to be less efficient.
ATP is vital because your muscles use the ATP to contract. During aerobic respiration, your body typically performs this function. Your cells can make a lot of ATP with oxygen and glucose, up to 38 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
However, when you exercise vigorously, your lungs are unable to keep up, and there is insufficient oxygen to supply your muscles with the ATP they require. Your muscle cells decide to switch to anaerobic respiration on their own.
Your muscle cells use sugar to make ATP during anaerobic respiration, but they don't use oxygen. Your muscles will begin to burn as a result of the rapid conversion of lactate into lactic acid during this process. As you may have noticed, lactic acid makes it harder to exercise.
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