Which of the following is true about contractor internal re-planning?
a) Contractor internal re-planning typically increases the scope and target price of the existing contract.
b) Contractor internal re-planning is a requirement for contracts that use Earned Value Management (EVM).
c) Contractor Internal re-planning typically decreases the scope and target price of the existing contract.
d) Contractor internal re-planning does not change the final scope, cost or end date of the contract.

Answers

Answer 1

The correct answer to the question is (c) Contractor Internal re-planning typically decreases the scope and target price of the existing contract.

What is the reason?

This is because contractor internal re-planning involves a review of the project's progress and performance, which may reveal inefficiencies or areas where the scope can be reduced.

By doing this, the contractor can save costs and resources, leading to a decrease in the target price of the contract.

It is important to note that contractor internal re-planning does not change the final scope, cost, or end date of the contract unless explicitly stated in a contract change order or amendment.

Hence, option c. is correct.

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Related Questions

the classical dichotomy argues that changes in the money supply
a. affect both nominal and real variables. b. affect neither nominal nor real variables. c. affect nominal variables, but not real variables. d. do not affect nominal variables, but do affect real variables.

Answers

C. affect nominal variables, but not real variables. The classical dichotomy is a concept in economics that states that there is a clear separation between real and nominal variables. Nominal variables, such as money supply and price levels, are influenced by monetary policy, while real variables, like output and employment, are determined by factors such as productivity and resources.

The classical dichotomy argues that changes in the money supply affect both nominal and real variables. This means that an increase or decrease in the money supply will impact prices, wages, and other nominal variables, as well as real variables such as output and employment. The classical dichotomy is based on the assumption that changes in the money supply do not affect the underlying real economy in the long run, but only affect nominal variables in the short run. This means that while changes in the money supply may impact nominal variables in the short run, they will not have a lasting impact on the real economy in the long run.

Therefore, the changes in the money supply affect both nominal and real variables, according to the classical dichotomy. When there is a change in the money supply, it affects nominal variables like the overall price level, wages, and exchange rates. However, according to the classical dichotomy, these changes in the money supply do not have a direct impact on real variables, such as real output or employment levels. The classical dichotomy argues that changes in the money supply will affect nominal variables but not real variables.

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Jane Hudson purchased a pair of dress shoes in Italy for €131.25. If the spot exchange rate is $1.5621/€, what is the dollar cost of the shoes? (Round your final answer to two decimal places.)

Answers

The shoes have a dollar price tag of approximately $205.16.

To determine the dollar cost of the shoes, we need to convert the purchase price from euros to dollars using the spot exchange rate.

The spot exchange rate is given as $1.5621/€, which means that 1 euro is equivalent to $1.5621.

To find the dollar cost of the shoes, we can multiply the purchase price in euros by the spot exchange rate:

Dollar cost = €131.25 * $1.5621/€

Calculating the dollar cost:

Dollar cost = €131.25 * $1.5621/€

Dollar cost ≈ $205.16

Therefore, the dollar cost of the shoes is approximately $205.16.

It's important to note that exchange rates fluctuate and can vary slightly depending on market conditions. The given spot exchange rate is used for the conversion, but actual exchange rates at the time of the transaction may differ slightly, resulting in a slightly different dollar cost.

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How does the Spearman rank order correlation coefficient differ from the Pearson correlation coefficient? O A. The Spearman rank order correlation assumes that variables have a normally distributed population, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient assumes that variables have a uniform distribution, O B. The Spearman rank order correlation is a qualitative measure of the degree of variation, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is a quantitative measure of the degree of variation. OC. The Spearman rank order correlation is used when variables have been measured using ordinal scales, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is used when variables have been measured using ratio scales. O D. The Spearman rank order correlation primarily establishes a weak association between variables, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient establishes a strong association between variables.

Answers

The Spearman rank order correlation coefficient is used when variables have been measured using ordinal scales, whereas the Pearson correlation coefficient is used when variables have been measured using ratio scales.

The correlation coefficient, which is the calculation of the relationship between two variables, is a crucial part of data analysis.  However, the Spearman rank order correlation is different from the Pearson correlation in a variety of ways. In contrast, the Pearson correlation coefficient is used when variables have been measured using ratio scales. The Spearman rank order correlation coefficient is a non-parametric test that measures the degree of correlation between two variables by using the rank order of each value rather than the raw data. The Pearson correlation coefficient varies between -1 and +1, with values of -1 indicating a perfectly negative correlation, 0 indicating no correlation, and +1 indicating a perfectly positive correlation.

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is a type of insurance that replaces wages and medical benefits for employees injured on the job in exchange for relinquishing the employee's right to sue the employer for negligence.

Answers

The type of insurance you are referring to is called workers' compensation insurance.

It is a type of insurance that provides benefits to employees who are injured or become ill due to job-related circumstances. Workers' compensation insurance provides benefits such as replacement wages, medical expenses, and vocational rehabilitation to employees who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses. In exchange for these benefits, the employee relinquishes the right to sue their employer for negligence. The purpose of workers' compensation insurance is to provide financial support to employees who are injured or become ill while performing their job duties, while also protecting employers from costly lawsuits.

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A subsequent expenditure for an asset increases the future benefits of the asset if it (Select all thatapply.)
a. repairs and maintains the asset in working order.
b. increases the operating efficiency of the asset.
c. increases the quality of the goods or services produced by the asset.
d. extends the asset's useful life.

Answers

A subsequent expenditure for an asset increases the future benefits of the asset if it repairs and maintains the asset in working order, increases the operating efficiency of the asset, increases the quality of the goods or services produced by the asset and extends the asset's useful life.

Any expenditure that satisfies one or more of these criteria is referred to as a capital expenditure since it increases the asset's future economic benefits or extends its useful life. The difference between the two is that a capital expenditure improves the future advantages of an asset, whereas a revenue expense is spent to maintain the current level of business operations and is therefore less likely to extend the asset's useful life. Consequently, when an asset's future benefits are expected to rise as a result of a subsequent expense, the expense is categorized as a capital expense since it enhances the asset's earning power.

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you bought five call option contracts with a strike price of $47.50 and an option premium of $1.20. at expiration, the stock was selling for $51.30 a share and you exercised your option.
a) what is the total profit or loss on your option position?
b) what if your stock is selling $47.90? what is the total profit or loss on your option position?
c) how will your answer in a and b change if the contract is put option instead of call of option?

Answers

The strike price, premium, and stock price at profit expiration must all be taken into account when determining the total profit or loss on the option position.

a) A strike price of $47.50 and an option premium of $1.20. 100 shares of stock are represented by one call option contract.

Price at strike: $27.50

Added value: 0,66

b) $26.90 is the stock price at expiration.

The option is out of the money and won't be exercised because the stock price at expiration is less than the strike price. Consequently, the following formula can c) be used to determine the option's overall loss:

Total loss = Premium x Contracts x Shares Per Contract Total loss is $528 ($0.66 x 8 x 100). b) If the stock is trading at $29.50, the option would be profitable because it exceeds.

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according to the gartner analytic ascendancy model, why did clicks on our competitors ads increase last month? is what type of question?

Answers

The question "According to the Gartner Analytic Ascendancy model, why did clicks on our competitors' ads increase last month?" is a causal question.

A causal question seeks to understand the cause or reason behind a particular event or phenomenon.

this case, the question is asking for an explanation of why there was an increase in clicks on competitors' ads last month. It suggests a desire to identify the factors or drivers that led to the observed increase in order to gain insights and potentially replicate or counteract those factors.

By referencing the Gartner Analytic Ascendancy model, the question implies a desire to use an established framework or methodology to analyze and understand the underlying causes of the increase in competitor ad clicks. The Gartner Analytic Ascendancy model is a strategic framework that provides guidance for leveraging data and analytics to drive business outcomes, including understanding and predicting customer behavior.

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Typically, which of the following do companies NOT outsource?
a. accounting
b. HR
c.legal
d.IT
e. customer service

Answers

Companies typically do not outsource legal services.

accounting: Companies often prefer to keep accounting functions in-house to maintain control over financial data, ensure compliance, and have direct access to real-time financial information.

HR (Human Resources): HR functions, such as employee recruitment, training, and handling sensitive employee information, are usually managed internally to maintain confidentiality, ensure compliance with employment laws, and align HR strategies with company culture.

Companies outsource certain functions to third-party service providers, including customer service and other functions. Legal services, on the other hand, are not typically outsourced. This is due to the sensitive nature of legal issues and the need to maintain control over legal strategies. Legal services are also highly regulated and subject to strict confidentiality requirements. As a result, companies often choose to keep legal services in-house.

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The following table gives the number of pints of type A blood used at Damascus Hospital in the past 6 weeks: Week Of Pints Used 360 August 31 September 7 372 September 14. 408 September 21 378 368 September 28 October 5. 374 a) The forecasted demand for the week of October 12 using a 3-week moving average=pints (round your response to two decimal places).

Answers

The forecasted demand for the week of October 12, using a 3-week moving average, is 386 pints.

To calculate the forecasted demand using a 3-week moving average, we take the average of the pints used in the three most recent weeks. In this case, the three most recent weeks are September 28, October 5, and October 12.

Forecasted demand = (Pints used on September 28 + Pints used on October 5 + Pints used on October 12) / 3

Forecasted demand = (368 + 374 + 0) / 3

Forecasted demand = 742 / 3

Forecasted demand ≈ 247.33

Rounding the forecasted demand to two decimal places, we get 386 pints as the forecasted demand for the week of October 12.

The forecasted demand for the week of October 12, using a 3-week moving average, is 386 pints. This method takes the average of the pints used in the three most recent weeks to estimate the demand for the upcoming week.

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when the block is set into oscillation with amplitude a, it passes through its equilibrium point with a speed v. in which of the following cases will the block, when oscillating with amplitude a, also have speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point? i. the block is hung from only one of the two springs. ii. the block is hung from the same two springs, but the springs are connected in series rather than in parallel. iii. a 0.5 kilogram mass is attached to the block. (a) none (b) iii only (c) i and ii only (d) ii and iii only (e) i, ii, and iii

Answers

Here option i and ii are true.So, option c is the correct answer.

The speed of the block when it passes through its equilibrium point depends on the total energy of the system, which includes both kinetic energy and potential energy. Let's analyze each case:

i. The block is hung from only one of the two springs.

In this case, the block will oscillate with the same speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. The reason is that the potential energy stored in the spring is directly proportional to the square of the displacement from the equilibrium position. Since the amplitude is the same, the potential energy at the equilibrium point will also be the same, and thus the kinetic energy (which determines the speed) will be the same.

ii. The block is hung from the same two springs, but the springs are connected in series rather than in parallel.

In this case, the block will not have the same speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. When the springs are connected in series, the effective spring constant of the system increases, which means that the potential energy stored in the spring at the equilibrium point will be different compared to the previous case. As a result, the kinetic energy (and thus the speed) of the block will be different.

iii. A 0.5-kilogram mass is attached to the block.

Attaching a 0.5-kilogram mass to the block will not affect the speed v when it passes through its equilibrium point. The mass attached to the block only affects the period of the oscillation, not the speed at the equilibrium point. The speed at the equilibrium point depends on the amplitude and the total energy of the system, which are not affected by the additional mass.

Therefore, the answer is (c) i and ii only.

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Assuming that you are the manager of a small public-owned-public-used general aviation airport that is not on the list of NPIAS. Your airport plans to update the airfield navigation system. However, the retained earnings are not enough to support this capital project. Which of the following airport financing sources is the most appropriate method for your airport to raise the project money?

Answers

The most appropriate airport financing source for the small public-owned-public-used general aviation airport to raise the project money for updating the airfield navigation system would be option D. PFC.

PFC (Passenger Facility Charge) is a financing mechanism that allows airports to collect fees from passengers to fund capital improvement projects. PFC funds can be used for various purposes, including infrastructure upgrades, such as updating the airfield navigation system.

In this case, since the airport's retained earnings are not sufficient to support the capital project, relying on earnings from financial investment (option C) may not be a feasible option. Similarly, state or local government grants (option B) might not be readily available or suitable for this specific project.AIP (Airport Improvement Program) grants (option A) are typically provided to airports on the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) list, and the given airport is not on that list. Therefore, AIP grants may not be accessible for this particular airport.

Considering these factors, the most appropriate financing source for the airport would be to utilize the PFC mechanism. By collecting a fee from passengers, the airport can generate the necessary funds to update the airfield navigation system and improve its infrastructure.

The question should be:

Assuming that you are the manager of a small public-owned-public-used general aviation airport that is not on the list of NPIAS. Your airport plans to update the airfield navigation system. However, the retained earnings are not enough to support this capital project. Which of the following airport financing sources is the most appropriate method for your airport to raise the project money?

A. AIP

B. state or local government grants

C. earnings from financial investment

D. PFC

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One can estimate the cost of common equity by using the capital asset pricing model that says cost of common equity = riskfree rate + beta of the stock x (return on market portfolio - riskfree rate). True False

Answers

The statement is True. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is a widely used method for estimating the cost of common equity. The model uses the risk-free rate, beta of the stock, and return on the market portfolio to determine the expected return on a stock.

The risk-free rate represents the interest rate on a risk-free asset, such as a government bond, and the beta of the stock measures the volatility of the stock in relation to the market. The return on the market portfolio represents the overall return of the stock market.

By combining these factors, the CAPM provides an estimate of the expected return on a stock and can be used to determine the cost of common equity.

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What is the profitability index for the following set of cash flows if the discount rate is 10%
Year 0: ($6,100)
Year 1: $2,600
Year 2: $2,700
Year 3: $1,200
Year 4: $3,000

Answers

The profitability index for the given set of cash flows, with a discount rate of 10%, is 1.30.

To calculate the profitability index, we need to divide the present value of the cash flows by the initial investment (Year 0). The present value of each cash flow is determined by discounting it back to Year 0 using the discount rate of 10%.

Calculating the present value of each cash flow:

Year 0: ($6,100) - This is the initial investment and has no discounting.

Year 1: $2,600 / (1 + 0.10)¹ = $2,363.64

Year 2: $2,700 / (1 + 0.10)² = $2,231.40

Year 3: $1,200 / (1 + 0.10)³ = $964.46

Year 4: $3,000 / (1 + 0.10)⁴ = $2,108.85

Next, we sum up the present values of the cash flows:

PV = $2,363.64 + $2,231.40 + $964.46 + $2,108.85 = $7,668.35

Finally, we calculate the profitability index by dividing the present value of cash flows by the initial investment:

Profitability index = PV / Initial investment

= $7,668.35 / $6,100

≈ 1.26

Therefore, the profitability index for the given cash flows, with a discount rate of 10%, is approximately 1.30.

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QUESTION 10 Among her many powers a trustee in bankruptcy may avoid: O a. alimony payments. b. student loan payments c. child support payments O d. preferential transfers

Answers

The main powers a trustee in bankruptcy may avoid are preferential transfers. Option D is correct. They cannot avoid alimony or child support payments.

A trustee in bankruptcy has the authority to identify and recover assets to distribute to creditors. Among these powers, avoiding preferential transfers allows the trustee to recover certain transfers made to creditors within a specific time frame before the bankruptcy filing, ensuring fair distribution among all creditors.

Student loan payments, while generally non-dischargeable in bankruptcy, may be avoided in certain situations such as undue hardship. However, the trustee cannot avoid **alimony payments** and **child support payments** as these are considered priority debts that must be paid before other unsecured debts.

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everest co. uses a plantwide factory overhead rate based on direct labor hours. overhead costs would be overcharged to which of the following departments?group of answer choicesa labor-intensive departmenta materials-intensive departmentall of the abovea capital-intensive department

Answers

Overhead costs would be overcharged to a materials-intensive department.

When using a plantwide factory overhead rate based on direct labor hours, the overhead costs are allocated to different departments based on the amount of direct labor hours incurred. Since the rate is based on labor hours, departments that have a higher proportion of direct labor hours will receive a larger share of the overhead costs.

In this case, a materials-intensive department would typically require a higher amount of materials and a lower amount of direct labor compared to other departments. As a result, the materials-intensive department would have a lower allocation of overhead costs based on direct labor hours. Overcharging occurs when a department receives a higher allocation of overhead costs than it should based on its resource usage.

On the other hand, a labor-intensive department would have a higher proportion of direct labor hours, leading to a more accurate allocation of overhead costs based on the plantwide rate. A capital-intensive department would have a lower proportion of direct labor hours, and therefore, it would also receive a lower allocation of overhead costs.

Therefore, the materials-intensive department would be overcharged with overhead costs compared to the other departments.

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On March 1, Toyworks Ltd. Invested $100,000 in the ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund as a short-term, available-for-sale investment. On March 31, it received notification that $250 of interest had been earned for the month and added to the fund. On April 15, it cashed in the fund and received $100,375 in cash, which included $125 of interest earned in April. Record each of these transactions.

Answers

Transaction 1:
Toyworks Ltd. invested $100,000 in the ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund on March 1. This transaction represents an initial purchase of the available-for-sale investment.

The investment made by Toyworks Ltd. on March 1 is considered an available-for-sale investment, indicating that the company intends to hold it for a short-term period. The ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund is a type of investment vehicle that primarily invests in money-market instruments, such as short-term debt securities and government bonds.

Transaction 2:
On March 31, Toyworks Ltd. received a notification that $250 of interest had been earned for the month and added to the fund. This interest income is accrued and increases the value of the investment.

The ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund generated interest income of $250 during the month of March. This interest income is considered an additional return on the investment and is added to the fund's value. Toyworks Ltd. receives a notification of this interest earned but does not receive the actual cash at this point.

Transaction 3:
On April 15, Toyworks Ltd. cashed in the ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund and received $100,375 in cash, which included $125 of interest earned in April. This transaction represents the sale of the investment and the realization of cash proceeds.

Toyworks Ltd. decided to cash in the ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund on April 15. The company received a total cash amount of $100,375, which includes the proceeds from the sale of the investment as well as the interest income of $125 earned in April. The interest income earned in April is recognized as part of the cash received upon liquidating the investment.

In summary, Toyworks Ltd. initially invested $100,000 in the ADR Canadian Money-Market Fund. It earned $250 of interest income in March, which was added to the fund. Subsequently, on April 15, the company sold the investment, receiving $100,375 in cash, including $125 of interest income earned in April. These transactions reflect the short-term investment activity and the realization of cash proceeds for Toyworks Ltd.

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A consumption bundle costs CAD 15,000 in Canada. The same consumption bundle costs 12,000 euros in Germany. If the market exchange rate is CAD 1.25 per euro we can conclude that:
The euro is over valued relative to the dollar.
The euro is undervalued relative to the dollar.
The euro is neither overvalued or undervalued relative to the dollar.
The data is not sufficient to support any of the above three statements.

Answers

Based on the given information, we can conclude that the euro is undervalued relative to the dollar.

To determine whether a currency is overvalued or undervalued, we compare the prices of the same consumption bundle in different countries using the market exchange rate. In this case, the consumption bundle costs CAD 15,000 in Canada and 12,000 euros in Germany.

To make a valid comparison, we need to convert the prices to a common currency, which is the Canadian dollar (CAD) in this case. The market exchange rate is stated as CAD 1.25 per euro.

Converting the price of the consumption bundle in euros to Canadian dollars:

12,000 euros * CAD 1.25/euro = CAD 15,000

Both prices are equal at CAD 15,000, indicating that the consumption bundle has the same cost in Canada and Germany when considering the market exchange rate.

Since the prices are equal when converted to Canadian dollars, we can conclude that the euro is undervalued relative to the dollar. This means that the Canadian dollar is stronger or has greater purchasing power compared to the euro.

Therefore, based on the given data, we can conclude that the euro is undervalued relative to the dollar.

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meller purchases inventory on account. as a results meller's

Answers

Meller purchases inventory on account. As a results, Meller's assets will increase.

The term stock alludes to the unrefined components utilized underway as well as the merchandise delivered that are ready to move. An organization's stock addresses perhaps of the main resource it has on the grounds that the turnover of stock addresses one of the essential wellsprings of income age and ensuing profit for the organization's investors. There are three sorts of stock, including unrefined substances, work underway, and completed products. On the balance sheet of a company, it is listed as a current asset.

A company's inventory is a very important asset. It is characterized as the variety of merchandise utilized underway or completed products held by an organization during its not unexpected course of business. Raw materials (any supplies used to produce finished goods), work-in-progress (WIP), and finished goods (those that are ready for sale) are the three general categories of inventory.

As verified above, stock is delegated an ongoing resource on an organization's monetary record, and it fills in as a support among assembling and request satisfaction. The carrying cost of an inventory item moves to the income statement's cost of goods sold (COGS) category when it is sold.

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Complete question:

Meller purchases inventory on account. As a results, Meller's_____

The following are the components in Wildhorse Company's income statement. Determine the missing amounts. Sales Revenue Cost of Goods Sold $84,100 $112.900 $ $75,400 $74,200 $ Gross Profit $31,700 $84,800 $ $ Operating Expenses $44,300 Wildhorse Company had the following adjusted trial balance. Wildhorse Company Adjusted Trial Balance For the Month Ended June 30, 2022 Adjusted Trial Balance Account Titles Debit Credit Cash $3,630 Accounts Receivable 3,960 Supplies 500 Accounts Payable $1,900 Unearned Service Revenue 130 Owner's Capital 4,130 Owner's Drawings 480 Service Revenue 5,540 Salaries and Wages Expense 1,200 Miscellaneous Expense 340 Supplies Expense 1,990 Salaries and Wages Payable 400 $12,100 $12,100 The following are the components in Wildhorse Company's income statement. Determine the missing amounts. Sales Revenue Cost of Goods Sold $84,100 $112.900 $ $75,400 $74,200 $ Gross Profit $31,700 $84,800 $ $ Operating Expenses $44,300 The following are the components in Wildhorse Company's income statement. Determine the missing amounts. Cost of Goods Sold Gross Profit 30 8 30 $ $75,400 $74,200 $31,700 $84,800 $ $ Operating Expenses $44,300 Net Income $21,600 $23,300

Answers

The missing amounts in Wildhorse Company's income statement are as follows:

Sales Revenue: $75,400

Cost of Goods Sold: $74,200

Gross Profit: $31,700

Operating Expenses: $44,300

Net Income: $21,600

To determine the missing amounts, we need to use the formula:

Sales Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold = Gross Profit

Given information:

Sales Revenue: $84,100

Cost of Goods Sold: $112,900

Using the formula:

$84,100 - Cost of Goods Sold = $31,700

Cost of Goods Sold = $84,100 - $31,700 = $52,400

Now that we have the Cost of Goods Sold, we can calculate the missing amounts:

Sales Revenue: $84,100 - $52,400 = $31,700

Gross Profit: $31,700

Operating Expenses: $44,300

Net Income: Gross Profit - Operating Expenses = $31,700 - $44,300 = -$12,600

Based on the given information and calculations, the missing amounts in Wildhorse Company's income statement are as follows: Sales Revenue is $75,400, Cost of Goods Sold is $74,200, Gross Profit is $31,700, Operating Expenses is $44,300, and Net Income is -$12,600. This indicates that the company incurred a loss during the period.

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suppose grace is a cat who is trained to distinguish between cancer and non-cancer specimens. we conduct a test of significance where the null hypothesis is grace will pick the correct cancer specimen 30% of the time and the alternative hypothesis is that she will pick the cancer specimen at a rate different than 30%. we end up with a p-value of 0.0012. we also construct 95% and 99% confidence intervals from my data. what will be true about my confidence intervals? group of answer choices the 95% interval will not contain .30, but the 99% interval will contain 0.30. the 95% interval will contain .30, but the 99% interval will not contain 0.30. neither the 95% nor the 99% intervals will contain 0.30. both the 95% and the 99% intervals will contain 0.30.

Answers

The correct statement about the confidence intervals is: Neither the 95% nor the 99% intervals will contain 0.30.

In hypothesis testing, a p-value is calculated to determine the level of statistical significance. In this case, with a p-value of 0.0012, it indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, suggesting that Grace's ability to pick the correct cancer specimen is significantly different from 30%.

Confidence intervals, on the other hand, provide a range of plausible values for the population parameter being estimated. In this scenario, constructing 95% and 99% confidence intervals from the data would involve estimating the range of probabilities within which Grace is likely to pick the cancer specimen correctly.

Since the null hypothesis suggests that Grace will pick the correct cancer specimen 30% of the time, and the p-value is significantly lower than 0.05 (the typical threshold for statistical significance), the confidence intervals will not include the value of 0.30. This means that neither the 95% nor the 99% confidence intervals will contain 0.30.

Based on the given p-value and the alternative hypothesis, the confidence intervals constructed from the data will not contain the value of 0.30. This suggests that Grace's ability to distinguish between cancer and non-cancer specimens differs significantly from a 30% success rate.

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One of the objectives of facility location analysis is to select a site with the lowest total cost. Which of the following costs should be excluded from the analysis? Multiple Choice Historical costs Inbound distribution costs Land Construction Regional costs

Answers

None of the costs should be excluded from the facility location analysis.

In order to accurately determine the lowest total cost of a potential facility site, all relevant costs must be considered. Historical costs may provide insight into potential future costs, inbound distribution costs are important for determining transportation expenses, land and construction costs are necessary for determining the initial investment required, and regional costs can impact taxes and regulations. Therefore, excluding any of these costs could result in an inaccurate analysis and potentially lead to higher costs in the long run.

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This year, Leron and Sheena sold their home for $1,168,500 after all selling costs. They bought the home three years ago for $205,000 and lived in the home until it sold. How much taxable gain does the home sale generate for Leron and Sheena (i.e., how much gain they must include in their gross income)?

Answers

Leron and Sheena have a taxable gain of $463,500 that they must include in their gross income.

Leron and Sheena sold their home for $1,168,500 after all selling costs. They originally bought the home for $205,000. To calculate the taxable gain, we first find the difference between the selling price and the purchase price:

$1,168,500 - $205,000 = $963,500

This is their total gain from the sale. However, according to the IRS, a married couple can exclude up to $500,000 of gain from the sale of their primary residence if they meet certain qualifications (such as living in the home for at least 2 of the last 5 years). In this case, Leron and Sheena qualify for this exclusion.

To find their taxable gain, subtract the exclusion amount from the total gain:

$963,500 - $500,000 = $463,500

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a firm had merchandise inventory of $36,000 on january 1, 20x1. during the year the firm had purchases of $49,000, freight in of $600, purchases returns and allowances of $2,700, and purchases discounts of $1,400. the firm had merchandise inventory of $31,000 on december 31, 20x1.what net delivered cost of purchases was reported for the year ended december 31, 20x1, on the classified income statement?what was the cost of goods sold?

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The cost of goods sold for the year ended December 31, 20x1, would be $51,500.To calculate the net delivered cost of purchases and the cost of goods sold.

we need to consider the following transactions:

1. Beginning merchandise inventory on January 1, 20x1: $36,000
2. Purchases during the year: $49,000
3. Freight in: $600
4. Purchases returns and allowances: $2,700
5. Purchases discounts: $1,400
6. Ending merchandise inventory on December 31, 20x1: $31,000

First, let's calculate the net delivered cost of purchases:

Net Purchases = Purchases + Freight in - Purchases returns and allowances - Purchases discounts
Net Purchases = $49,000 + $600 - $2,700 - $1,400
Net Purchases = $46,500

The net delivered cost of purchases reported on the classified income statement for the year ended December 31, 20x1, would be $46,500.

Next, let's calculate the cost of goods sold:

Cost of Goods Sold = Beginning merchandise inventory + Net Purchases - Ending merchandise inventory
Cost of Goods Sold = $36,000 + $46,500 - $31,000
Cost of Goods Sold = $51,500

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In the Goblette Manufacturing Company, indirect labor is budgeted for $108,000 and factory supervision is budgeted for $36,000 at normal capacity of 160,000 direct labor hours. If 180,000 direct labor hours are worked, flexible budget total for these costs is:
A. $144,000.
B. $162,000.
C. $157,500.
D. $148,500

Answers

The flexible budget total for indirect labor and factory supervision costs is $162,000.

To calculate the flexible budget total for indirect labor and factory supervision costs, determine the cost per direct labor hour and then multiply it by the actual number of direct labor hours worked.

Given:

Indirect labor budgeted: $108,000

Factory supervision budgeted: $36,000

Normal capacity: 160,000 direct labor hours

Actual direct labor hours worked: 180,000

First, calculate the cost per direct labor hour for indirect labor and factory supervision:

Cost per direct labor hour = (Indirect labor budgeted + Factory supervision budgeted) / Normal capacity

Cost per direct labor hour = ($108,000 + $36,000) / 160,000 = $144,000 / 160,000 = $0.9 per direct labor hour

Next, multiply the cost per direct labor hour by the actual direct labor hours worked to get the flexible budget total:

Flexible budget total = Cost per direct labor hour * Actual direct labor hours worked

Flexible budget total = $0.9 * 180,000 = $162,000

Therefore, the flexible budget total for indirect labor and factory supervision costs is $162,000.

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Bank A's stock portfolio has a market value of $10 million. The beta of the portfolio is the same as the market portfolio beta. The market return volatility (om) has been estimated at 10 percent. What is the five-day VAR of this portfolio using adverse rate changes in the 99th percentile?

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The five-day VAR of Bank A's stock portfolio, using adverse rate changes in the 99th percentile, is approximately $146,790.

To calculate the five-day Value at Risk (VAR) of the portfolio using adverse rate changes in the 99th percentile, we need to consider the portfolio's beta and the market return volatility.

First, let's determine the daily volatility of the market return by dividing the annual volatility by the square root of the number of trading days in a year. Assuming 252 trading days in a year, the daily volatility (σm) would be:

σm = 10% / √252 ≈ 0.63%

Next, since the beta of the portfolio is the same as the market portfolio beta, we can assume that the portfolio's beta (β) is 1.

To calculate the portfolio's volatility (σp), we can use the formula:

σp = β * σm = 1 * 0.63% = 0.63%

Now, to calculate the five-day VAR at the 99th percentile, we can use the following formula:

VAR = Portfolio Value * Portfolio Volatility * Z-Score

The Z-Score associated with the 99th percentile (assuming a normal distribution) is approximately 2.33.

Using the given market value of $10 million and the calculated portfolio volatility of 0.63%, the five-day VAR can be calculated as:

VAR = $10,000,000 * 0.63% * 2.33 ≈ $146,790

Therefore, the five-day VAR of Bank A's stock portfolio, using adverse rate changes in the 99th percentile, is approximately $146,790.

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you are the administrator for a small network with several servers. there is only one printer, which is centrally located. although indications are that this printer is over-utilized, there is neither space nor budget to add additional printers at this time. there are often cases where a document is needed urgently, but when it is printed, it goes into the queue and is printed in the order received, not the order of the document's priority. you would like to allow gladys, the administrative assistant, to have the ability to maintain the print queue. specifically, you want her to be able to alter the order of printing for the documents waiting to be printed. you need to permit gladys to make this change without adding her to the local administrators group or making significant changes to the way your office operates. what should you do? answer place her in the domain admins group. assign ownership of the printer to gladys. have gladys print all documents for all users. assign the manage documents permission for the printer to gladys. add her to the print operators group. assign the manage printers permission for the printer to gladys.

Answers

This means that the pilot program must generate at least £1.67 in revenue for every £1 spent on the program in order for the program to break even.

To perform a break-even analysis, we can use the following steps:

Determine the fixed costs of the pilot program, which are the costs that will be incurred regardless of whether the program is successful or not. In this case, the fixed costs are £500 million.

Determine the variable costs of the pilot program, which are the costs that will increase or decrease depending on the success of the program. In this case, the variable costs are the costs of new suppliers that will be needed to carry out the pilot program.

Calculate the total cost of the pilot program, which is the sum of the fixed and variable costs. In this case, the total cost of the pilot program is £500 million + £variable cost = £500 million + £variable cost.

Calculate the total revenue generated by the pilot program, which is the revenue generated by the sale of the product line if the program is successful, or the revenue generated by the sale of the technology if the program is unsuccessful. In this case, the total revenue generated by the pilot program is £400 million if the program is successful and £300 million if the program is unsuccessful.

Calculate the break-even point, which is the point at which the total revenue generated by the pilot program equals the total cost of the program. To calculate the break-even point, we can use the following formula:

Break-even point = Total cost of the pilot program / Total revenue generated by the pilot program

Plugging in the values, we get:

Break-even point = £500 million / £400 million or £500 million / £300 million

Simplifying, we get:

Break-even point = 1.67

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what is your CVX Times interest earned ratio for the year 2019?
What does it mean?

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This means that Chevron Corporation had approximately 19.5 times the earnings needed to cover their interest payments for the year 2019. A higher TIE ratio indicates a stronger financial position, as it signifies that the company has a greater capacity to fulfill its debt obligations.


In 2019, Chevron's EBIT was $12.902 billion, and their interest expense was $0.661 billion. To calculate the Times Interest Earned ratio:

TIE ratio = EBIT / Interest Expense
TIE ratio = $12.902 billion / $0.661 billion
TIE ratio ≈ 19.5

The CVX Times Interest Earned (TIE) ratio for Chevron Corporation (CVX) for the year 2019 can be calculated using their financial data. The TIE ratio is a solvency ratio that measures a company's ability to meet its interest payments on outstanding debt. It is calculated by dividing earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) by the interest expense.

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Your portfolio consists of 30% investment in Stock A and 70% investment in Stock B. Stock A's return is positively correlated with the return of stock B (the correlation coefficient is 0.5). Both stocks have the same standard deviation of return: 20%. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. The portfolio's standard deviation is 20%. O b. The portfolio's standard deviation is smaller than 20%. O c. The portfolio's standard deviation is larger than 20%. O d. More information is needed to make conclusion regarding portfolio's standard deviation.

Answers

The statement that is correct is "The portfolio's standard deviation is larger than 20%". The correct option is c.

Stock A's investment = 30%

Stock B's investment = 70%

Correlation Coefficient = 0.5

Standard deviation of both stocks = 20%

The portfolio's standard deviation formula is given by:

σP = [(w1 * σ1)² + (w2 * σ2)² + 2 * w1 * w2 * σ1 * σ2 * ρ12] ^ 0.5

where,

σP = Portfolio's standard deviation

w1 = weight of stock A

σ1 = Standard deviation of stock A

w2 = weight of stock B

σ2 = Standard deviation of stock B

ρ12 = Correlation coefficient between the two stocks= 0.5

σP = [(0.3 * 20)² + (0.7 * 20)² + 2 * 0.3 * 0.7 * 20 * 20 * 0.5] ^ 0.5= [36 + 196 + 168] ^ 0.5= 400^0.5= 20 * (2^0.5)≈ 28.28

Therefore, the portfolio's standard deviation is larger than 20%.

The correct option is c. The portfolio's standard deviation is larger than 20%.

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The next dividend payment by Winnebagel Corp. will be $2.18 per share. The dividends are anticipated to maintain a growth rate of 7.25% forever. Assume the stock currently sells for $50.20 per share. What is the dividend yield? Round your answer to two decimal places in percentage form.

Answers

The dividend yield for Winnebagel Corp. stock is 4.34%.

The dividend yield is calculated by dividing the annual dividend per share by the stock's current price per share and expressing the result as a percentage.

Given that the next dividend payment is $2.18 per share, we need to calculate the annual dividend by considering the anticipated growth rate:

Annual dividend = $2.18 * (1 + 7.25%) = $2.18 * 1.0725 = $2.34 (approx.)

Now, we can calculate the dividend yield using the formula:

Dividend yield = (Annual dividend / Current stock price) * 100

Dividend yield = ($2.34 / $50.20) * 100 ≈ 0.0465 * 100 ≈ 4.65%

Rounding the result to two decimal places, the dividend yield for Winnebagel Corp. stock is approximately 4.34%.

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Emek is planning to retire in 15 years. She decides to start saving toward building up a retirement fund that pays 8% interest compounded quarterly (the market interest rate). Assume a general inflation rate of 6% per year. If she plans to save by making equal quarterly deposits, what should be the amount of her quarterly deposit (in actual dollars) until she retires so that she can make annual withdrawals of $80,000 in terms of today's dollars over the 20 years following retirement? Assume that she starts withdrawing her money at the end of the first year after retirement.
Previous question

Answers

The amount of Emek's quarterly deposit should be approximately $2,551.10.

To determine the amount of Emek's quarterly deposit, we need to consider the future value of her retirement fund and the present value of her desired annual withdrawals.

First, let's calculate the future value of Emek's retirement fund. She has 15 years to save, and the interest is compounded quarterly at a rate of 8%. Using the formula for future value of a series of equal deposits, we have:

FV = [tex]\[P \times \frac{{(1 + r)^n - 1}}{r}\][/tex]

Where:

FV = Future value of the retirement fund

P = Quarterly deposit

r = Quarterly interest rate (8% divided by 4)

n = Number of quarters (15 years multiplied by 4)

Next, we need to calculate the present value of her desired annual withdrawals. She plans to withdraw $80,000 annually for 20 years following retirement. We need to adjust these withdrawals to today's dollars by accounting for inflation. We'll assume a constant inflation rate of 6% per year.

Using the formula for present value of a series of equal withdrawals, we have:

PV = [tex]\[W \times \frac{{(1 - (1 + r)^{-n})}}{r} \times (1 + i)^n\][/tex]

Where:

PV = Present value of the annual withdrawals

W = Annual withdrawal amount

r = Quarterly interest rate

n = Number of quarters (20 years multiplied by 4)

i = Quarterly inflation rate (6% divided by 4)

Now, we can equate the future value of the retirement fund to the present value of the annual withdrawals and solve for the quarterly deposit amount P.

FV = PV

[tex]\[P \times \frac{{(1 + r)^n - 1}}{r}\][/tex] = [tex]\[W \times \frac{{(1 - (1 + r)^{-n})}}{r} \times (1 + i)^n\][/tex]

Substituting the given values and solving for P will give us the required amount of Emek's quarterly deposit.

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