when someone is standing, gravity stretches the bottom of the lung down toward the floor to a greater extent than the top of the lung. what implications would this have on the flow of air in the lungs? where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

Answers

Answer 1

Gravity stretches the bottom of the lung down toward the floor more than the top of the lung while someone is standing. Increased ventilation occurs further down in the lung as a result of the concentration gradient.

What is at the bottom of the lungs?

The diaphragm, a skeletal muscle that aids in breathing, protects the bottom of the lungs. Breathing necessitates the synchronization of the lungs, the chest wall, and, most crucially, the diaphragm.

How does the structure of the lungs affect breathing?

The mechanics of breathing are controlled by the structure of the lungs and the thoracic cavity. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and descends. The intercostal muscles contract and expand the chest wall outward. The intrapleural pressure lowers, the lungs expand, and the air is pulled into the airways.

Why is the left lobe of the lungs smaller?

The left lobe is also smaller to create room for the heart. The left and right lungs are suspended by the lung root and separated by a mediastinum, which acts as a membrane divider between the two. Each lung has three surfaces, each called after its position in the thorax.

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Related Questions

10.What kinds of vessels are in leaf veins?

Answers

The correct option is xylem and phloem. These tissues occur in the middle of the leaf, and transport water and nutrients to the leaf, and sugars produced in the the leaf to other tissues.

In blank______, the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response is changed.

Answers

According to the research, the correct answer is counterconditioning. In counterconditioning, the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response is changed.

What is counterconditioning?

It is the variety of classical conditioning in which a stimulus already endowed with a motivational significance and evocative of a contradictory response is used as a signaling or conditioned stimulus.

In this sense, the response to the reinforcing stimulus, as a result of which the first becomes the stimulus conditioning the second and changes its effective sense and response accordingly.

Therefore, we can conclude that in Counterconditioning two stimuli can be associated even though they elicit opposite motivational responses.

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An epidemiologist wants to figure out if the Flu vaccine is effective at lowering the likelihood of dying from the disease.

What are some controlled variables?

A

The death rate of unvaccinated individuals will be higher than vaccinated individuals.

B

The vaccine

C

The death rate

D

Age and pre-existing conditions

Answers

If an epidemiologist wants to figure out if the Flu vaccine is effective at lowering the likelihood of dying from the disease, then the controlled variables are age and pre-existing conditions (Option D).

What is a controlled experimental variable?

A controlled experimental variable is any variable in the experimental treatment that remains the same in different groups in order to make a comparison with the target group.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the controlled experimental variables are those that stay the same to make comparisons in a given experimental procedure.

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In an experiment to figure out if the Flu vaccine is effective at lowering the likelihood of dying from the disease, the controlled variable is: the death rate.

What is a control experiment?

A control experiment simply refers to a type of experiment in which a condition assumed to be a probable cause of an effect is compared with the same situation without involving or using the suspected condition.

This ultimately implies that, all factors are held constant in a controlled experiment except for the independent variable.

In Science, a controlled variable must always be held constant and unchanged in an experiment in order to prevent it from affecting or influencing the result, which is what the death rate connotes in this scenario.

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Select the correct responses to the questions from the drop-down menus.

Which wind belt occurs at about 5 degrees north and south of the equator?

Which wind belt starts at the horse latitudes and moves toward the poles?

Which winds are found primarily in the tropics?

Answers

The wind belt that has been occurs at about about 5 degrees north and south of the equator is known as doldrums.

The wind belt that has been starts at the horse latitudes and moves toward the poles is the prevailing westerlies.

The winds that has been found primarily in the tropics are trade winds.

Doldrums refer to the equitorial region of the Atlantic Ocean that has storms and unpredictable winds.

What is north pole and south pole?

The north pole has been known as the northernmost point which has been presented on earth, and on the other hand south pole has been known as the southernmost part or the point of the earth. The area present in between south pole and north pole has been said that it is extremely cold and the area present near the equator is extremely hot.

Therefore, The wind belt that has been occurs at about about 5 degrees north and south of the equator is known as doldrums.

The wind belt that has been starts at the horse latitudes and moves toward the poles is the prevailing westerlies.

The winds that has been found primarily in the tropics are trade winds.

Doldrums refer to the equitorial region of the Atlantic Ocean that has storms and unpredictable winds.

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Answer:

this the answer

Explanation:

How do i find out the percentages?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The following formula is a common strategy to calculate a percentage:

1- Determine the total amount of what you want to find a percentage.

2- Divide the number to determine the percentage.

3- Multiply the value by 100.

s-oleone is structurally almost identical to a-oleone. when s-oleone is combined with the enzyme that normally breaks down a-oleone no products are formed, and the enzyme is no longer able to accept a-oleone. this suggests that

Answers

The enzyme then lets the product go after it has been created. Now that it has more reactants available, the enzyme is prepared to catalyze yet another reaction.

What is -oleone?

An enzyme can be employed for other reactions after it has catalyzed a reaction and been released from its binding to a substrate.

The three phases of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are: enzyme-substrate binding, "catalysis," and product release. They enable chemical processes to take place quickly enough to support life. Because they reduce the energy of activation—the energy required to make molecules react with one another—enzymes hasten the rate of chemical reactions. A substrate is anything that an enzyme typically reacts with.

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a mutant allele is found to have a mutation in the -35 element of the promoter region. the mutation makes the -35 element more similar to the -35 consensus sequence. which term best describes this allele? group of answer choices

Answers

A mutant allele causing mutation in the -35 element of the promoter region and the mutation making the -35 element more similar to the -35-consensus sequence is termed hypermorphic.

Hypermorphic (genetics, of a mutation) causes an increase in otherwise normal gene function.

Hypermorphic alleles are pick up of work alleles. A hypermorph can result from an increment in quality measurements (a quality duplication), from expanded mRNA or protein expression, or from constitutive protein action.

The phenotype of a hypermorph is compounded by expanding the wildtype quality dosage and is decreased by bringing down the wildtype quality dose.

A change that decreases but doesn't kill a gene’s usefulness is hypomorphic. A more extreme condition, amorphic transformation, disposes of the gene’s work.

A hypomorph could be a diminishment in quality work through decreased (protein, RNA) expression or diminished useful execution, but not a total misfortune. The phenotype of a hypomorph is more serious in trans to an erasure allele than when homozygous.

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explain what eutrophication means; describe the processes leading to eutrophication in words; determine the limiting nutrient; calculate algae production from the limiting nutrient; and discuss appropriate approaches to minimize eutrophication based on the limiting nutrient.

Answers

Eutrophication is the system by way of which an entire frame of water, or parts of it, becomes progressively enriched with minerals and nutrients.

Especially nitrogen and phosphorus. It has also been defined as a nutrient-precipitated boom in phytoplankton productiveness. Eutrophication is a herbal manner that results from the accumulation of vitamins in lakes or other bodies of water. Algae that feed on nutrients develop into the water floor, decreasing value and water intake pipes.

Nutrient enrichment happens due to runoff from agricultural fields and so on. The rapid increase of algae and different plankton resulted in an algal bloom. Dissolved oxygen depletion and toxin era. Aquatic species die because of the loss of oxygen and manufacturing.

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Researchers observe that an amoeba appears incapable of forming pseudopods for movement. They conclude that its immobility may be caused by the absence of the protein?.

Answers

Immobility of amoeba, may be caused by the absence of actin.

The pseudopodial movement is typically used by the Amoeba to move in the direction of food molecules. The pseudopodia surrounds the food molecule from both sides before eventually swallowing it whole. As a result, pseudopodia are utilized in movement and as a method for capturing prey or obtaining the necessary nutrients.

Because actin is the primary protein, actin polymers push their membrane as they grow, resulting in the formation of the pseudopod. The pseudopodium then uses its adhesion proteins (integrins, for example) to stick to a surface and pull the cell's body forward by contracting an actin-myosin complex in the pseudopod.

Researchers observe that an amoeba appears incapable of forming pseudopods for movement. They conclude that its immobility may be caused by the absence of the protein

a. collagen

b. kinesin

c. tubulin

d. dynein

e. actin

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How is an inference different from a hypothesis?
A. An inference can be made only using direct observation, while a
hypothesis can use predictions and reasoning.
B. An inference is based on scientific evidence, while a hypothesis is
based on an untestable guess.
C. An inference uses reasoning to explain what happened, while a
hypothesis uses reasoning to predict what may happen in the
future.
D. An inference is made before an investigation begins, while a
hypothesis is made after the evidence is collected.

Answers

A is the correct answer because you can inference things by just looking at them, while a hypothesis usually has to do with research and reasoning.

Answer:

c

Explanation: got it in aipex

Select the correct order of the final three stages in the lytic cycle:

Answers

The correct order of the final three stages in the lytic cycle is Assembly > Transduction > Release

What is a lytic cycle ?

One of the two viral reproduction cycles, the other being the lysogenic cycle, is the lytic cycle. The infected cell and its membrane are destroyed as a result of the lytic cycle. Violent phages are bacteriophages that exclusively use the lytic cycle.

The lytic cycle contains four steps: infecting a host (a process known as exposure), transferring genetic information into a cell, exploiting the cell's metabolic processes to produce more viruses, and ultimately weakening the cell walls until the host cell lyses, or bursts open due to excessive internal pressure.

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what is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? (give 5 differences)

Answers

Answer:

Prokaryotes are always unicellular, while eukaryotes are often multi-celled organisms

eukaryotic cells are more than 100 to 10,000 times larger than prokaryotic cells

eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells

The DNA in eukaryotes is stored within the nucleus, while DNA is stored in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes

A Prokaryotic cell is surrounded by a single membrane layer but In the case of Eukaryotic, there are two surroundings 1. Plasma membrane 2. Nuclear membrane.

Explanation:

After doing a body check-up, Sam found out he had an extremely low level of trypsinogen. Discuss what will happen after Sam eat a meal high in protein and fat.


(Your answer should mention location of secretion, location of activation, negative consequence if the enzyme does not function properly.)

Answers

If Sam had an extremely low level of trypsinogen, then he couldn't break down proteins from foods into their basic subunits, while fats were normally metabolized.

What is trypsinogen?

Trypsinogen is a precursor of the trypsin enzyme which is used by the body to degrade proteins into their amino acids. All proteins are composed of amino acids, which represent the building blocks of these biomolecules.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that trypsinogen is fundamental to degrading proteins onto their subunits (i.e., their amino acids), thereby the absence of normal levels of this precursor enzyme would be dangerous for the health of the organism.

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Phospholipids are found in a limited number of foods. They consists of a glycerol backbone with two fatty acids and a compound that contains phosphate. Why are they important in food and in the body?.

Answers

Esters of glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and other alcohols make up phospholipids.Phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylinositol, and phosphatidylserine are the four most prevalent phospholipids.

Where are phospholipids found in food?

The plasma membrane, the top layer of animal cells, is largely made up of phospholipids.They are made up of fatty acid chains joined to a glycerol backbone, just like fats.Phospholipids have two fatty acids that contribute to the formation of a diacylglycerol, as opposed to triglycerides, which have three fatty acidsPhospholipids are amphiphilic lipids consisting of a glycerol backbone or an amino-alcohol sphingosine backbone, which is esterified to one or two fatty acids, a phosphate group and a hydrophilic residue.Good sources of phospholipids include eggs, organ meats, lean meats, fish, shellfish, cereal grains, and oilseeds, particularly the choline phosphatides phosphatidylcholine, sphingomyelin, and lysophosphatidylcholine. Glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids are two kinds of lipids that make up the significant class of membrane lipids known as phospholipids. The cell membrane is composed of phospholipids, which are created when glycerol interacts with two fatty acids and a phosphate group.One phosphorus atom and four oxygen atoms combine to generate the complex ions known as phosphotes.Another form of lipid that does not contain glycerol is steroids. A phospholipid is a molecule made composed of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acids, and a modified phosphate group.The phosphate can change by having polar or charged chemical groups added to it. These hydrophilic and hydrophobic characteristics of phospholipids lead them to group into two layers when cellular membranes are formed.Because they are hydrophobic, the phosphate tails in between the layers of heads avoid contact with the water while the heads in each layer face the aqueous or watery environment on either side. The vital phospholipid fatty acids (PLFA), which degrade quickly after cell death and act as a marker to distinguish between living and dead organisms, are part of the cell membrane of microorganisms.

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In glycolysis, a glucose molecule is split into two molecules of ______, and energy is harvested as atp and nadh.

Answers

In glycolysis, a glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvate and energy is harvested as ATP and NADH.

Glycolysis is the process that can be characterized as the first stage of cellular respiration followed by the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain.

Cellular respiration is the process that occurs in the cells of the body to release energy from glucose derived from food molecules.

In the process of glycolysis, the glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvate molecules by a series of complex processes. ATP and NADH is released in the process of glycolysis.

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Set up a punnett square using the following information: ·
Dominant allele for black fur in guinea pigs = B
Recessive allele for white fur in guinea pigs =b
Dominant allele for rough fur in guinea pigs = R
Recessive allele for smooth fur in guinea pigs = r

Cross a heterozygous parent (BbRr) with a heterozygous parent (BbRr) and provide the phenotypic ratio for the offspring for the F1 generation.
(6 points)

Phenotypic Ratio:

Answers

The Punnett square can be used to determine allele combinations and the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios resulting from a cross.  Assuming two independent diallelic genes, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.

What is a punnett square?

The Punnett square is a graphic representation that shows the different types of gamete combinations according to the alleles involved in a cross.

Punnett square shows the probabilities of getting offspring with different genotypes and their consequent phenotypes.

For this example, we will assume complete dominance and independent dialellic genes.

Cross: heterozygous parent with a heterozygous parent

Parentals)         BbRr         x       BbRr

Gametes) BR, Br, bR, br          BR, Br, bR, br

Punnett Square)    BR          Br      bR      br

                    BR    BBRR    BBRr  BbRR  BbRr

                    Br     BBRr     BBrr    BbRr  Bbrr

                    bR    BbRR    BbRr   bbRR  bbRr

                    br     BbRr     Bbrr    bbRr   bbrr

F1) Phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1

9/16 B-R-3/16 bbR-3/16 B-rr1/16 bbrr

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What is the name of the enzyme that some viruses use to turn their RNA into DNA?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C, Reverse transcriptase

Explanation:

It is an enzyme encoded from the genetic material of retroviruses that catalyzes the transcription of retrovirus RNA (ribonucleic acid) into DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid).

The name of the enzyme that viruses use to turn their RNA into DNA is c) Reverse Transcriptase

The DNA polymerase enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT), also referred to as RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, converts single-stranded RNA into DNA. Once the RNA has been reverse-transcribed in the first step into a single-strand DNA, this enzyme can create a double helix DNA.

Reverse transcriptases are utilized by eukaryotic cells to lengthen the telomeres at the ends of their linear chromosomes, by retrotransposon mobile genetic elements to multiply inside the host genome, and by viruses like HIV, Corona Virus, and hepatitis B to duplicate their genomes.

So, viruses use Reverse Transcriptase to turn their RNA into DNA.

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In eukaryotes, the components of citric acid cycling and the electron transport chain are located in the ____.

Answers

Answer:

Mitochondria :)

Explanation:

a chain of repeating monomers to make a larger molecule

Answers

A chain of repeating monomers to make a larger molecule is called a Polymer.

Monomer-based compounds that combine to form polymers.

Large molecules known as polymers are constructed from single, comparable repeating components (monomers).

A polymer is made up of numerous monomers because the prefix poly- signifies "many" or "multi-."

Any of a group of organic or synthetic compounds known as polymers are made up of macromolecules, or very large molecules, which are just multiples of simpler chemical building blocks known as monomers. Numerous natural and man-made materials, as well as a large portion of the components in living things, are composed of polymers.

A polymer is created when many monomers are linked together. Polymers can be compared to a chain of interconnected paperclips in several ways. A polymer is a big molecule consisting of monomers, which are littler molecules bonded together.

Plastic is a subset of polymer since all plastics are polymers but not all polymers are plastic. Plastics are long-chain molecules created by large monomers while polymers are homogenous molecules created by small monomers. Plastics are manmade materials yet polymers can also be natural.

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Select the statement which is true of plants.
O All plant organs are made of the same
tissue types: ground, vascular, and
dermal.
O All plant organs are made of the same
tissue types: ground, nervous, and
dermal.
O Most plant organs are made of the
same tissue types: ground, vascular,
and dermal.
O Very few plants have the same tissue
types. The type of tissue a plant has
depends on which organs it contains.

Answers

Tissue of plants

Plant tissue systems can be classified as either permanent (or non-meristematic) tissue or meristematic tissue. Animal stem cells are analogous to meristematic tissue in that both types of cells continue to divide undifferentiated and aid in the growth of the plant. Plant cells that are no longer actively dividing make up permanent tissue in contrast.

Cells produced by meristems rapidly differentiate, or specialize, and develop into permanent tissue. These cells adopt a defined function and stop proliferating. Dermal, vascular, and ground tissue are the three primary tissue types that discriminate between them. All three tissue types are present in each plant organ (leaves, stems, and roots):

The plant's dermal tissue covers it, provides protection, and regulates water and gas exchange.

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Answer:

I could be wrong, but I believe it's dermal vascular and ground tissue

Explanation:

Sorry if incorrect

during the digestion process, why are short-chain fatty acids more easily absorbed by the body? a. they are hydrophobic. b. they are somewhat water soluble. c. they contain bile. d. they convert to glycerol. e. they have formed chylomicrons

Answers

During the digestion process, why are short-chain fatty acids more easily absorbed by the body because they  are somewhat water soluble.

the digestion process

The six actions that make up the digestive process are ingestion, propulsion, mechanical or physical digestion, chemical digestion process, absorption, and feces.

Ingestion, the first of these procedures, is the act of putting food via the mouth and into the alimentary canal. The meal is chewed there and combined with saliva, Both water-soluble (hydrophilic) and hydrophobic (water-insoluble) molecules can dissolve into a solution when water and an organic solvent are combined. Bilirubin diglucuronide is water-soluble due to its hydrophilic nature. Chemical and mechanical processes both take place during digestion. The process of mechanical digestion is simply physical and does not alter the chemical composition of the food. In its place, it shrinks the meal to enhance its surface area and mobility.

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An object displaces 7.1 ml of water. If the mass of the
object is 4 grams, what is the density?

Answers

Answer: D = 0.56 g/ml

Explanation:

We can use the density equation for this one.

D = m / v

We are given Mass (m) and Volume (v).

D = 4g / 7.1 ml

D = 0.56 g/ml

of all the mutations that occur in a population, why do only a small fraction become widespread and affect the average phenotype of the population? a. most occur in tissue that does not lead to gamete formation b. most occur in tissue that leads to gamete formation c. most that affect phenotypes are deleterious d. most that affect phenotypes are beneficial

Answers

Of all the mutations that occur in a population, only a small fraction become widespread and affect the average phenotype of the population because a. most occur in tissue that does not lead to gamete formation.

Mostly, a mutation occurs in the somatic cells of the body of an organism. These kinds of mutations that occur in the somatic cells will not be transformed from parents to children as genes from the gamete cells are transferred from the parents to the offspring.

Hence, if a mutation occurs in the somatic cell then it is reserved to that individual organism.

However, if a mutation occurs in the cells that leads to gamete formation then such a mutation will be carried on from the parent to an offspring. Hence, only a small fraction of the mutations become widespread and the ones that occur in the non-gamete-forming tissues are lost.

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the thymus is located in the , anterior to the aortic arch. the is very large in a child and will atrophy in advanced age. the is the largest of the lymphatic organs. a of connective tissue surrounds the spleen. the tiny islands (nodules) of tissue within the spleen that contain many lymphocytes constitute the pulp. the pulp of the spleen contains large numbers of red blood cells, lymphocytes, and macrophages. within the spleen engulf and destroy foreign particles and cellular debris. the lymphoid organs in the pharynx (throat) that are possible infection sites are collectively called the .

Answers

(1)mediastinum (2)thymus (3)spleen (4)capsule (5)white (6)red (7)macrophages (8)tonsils.

What are examples of connective tissue?

The more specialized and recognized variations—bone, ligaments, tendons, cartilage, and adipose (fat) tissue—as well as a variety of fibrous tissue types that differ only in density and cellularity are included in the connective tissues.

Where in the body is connective tissue found?

The walls of big blood arteries, elastic cartilages, yellow ligaments, the lungs, and the skin are where they are most commonly found. Different forms of connective tissue are produced by variations in the layouts and combinations of cells and protein fibers. Connective tissues store fat, move substances, ward off sickness, and assist in tissue healing in addition to binding structures together and supporting the body as a whole as well as the organs and individual organs. They are everywhere on the body.

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The complete question is -

(1)The thymus is located in the ____________, anterior to the aortic arch

(2)The _________ is very large in a child and will atrophy in advanced age

(3)The _________ is the largest of the lymphatic organs

(4)A _________ of connective tissue surrounds the spleen

(5)The tiny islands (nodules) of tissue within the spleen that contain many lymphocytes constitute the ______ pulp.

(6)the _________ pulp of the spleen contains large numbers of red blood cells, lymphocytes, and macrophages

(7)___________ within the spleen engulf and destroy foreign particles and cellular debris.

(8)The lymphoid organs in the pharynx (throat) that are possible infection sites are collectively called _________

when a true-breeding red flower is crossed with a white flower, and all the f1 flowers are pink, this is due to epistasis. codominance. crossing over. incomplete dominance. a mutation.

Answers

The correct answer is option C i.e. incomplete dominance

when a true-breeding red flower is crossed with a white flower, and all the f1 flowers are pink, this is due to incomplete dominance.

In a cross between true-breeding red flower RR and white flower rr in F1 generation, we get pink colored flower Rr.  This type of inheritance is called incomplete dominance as neither of them is completely dominant over each other.

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Explain how the nitrogen cycle is supported by the law of conservation of matter.

Answers

During the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen atoms are neither created nor destroyed nor transformed into other atoms.

During the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen atoms are neither created nor destroyed nor transformed into other atoms. This can be explained by the law of conservation of matter. This law states that matter cannot be created or destroyed by any chemical or physical process.

Nitrification

During nitrification, ammonia is first converted to nitrite and then to nitrate by certain bacteria.

Ammonification

Ammonification is the process by which proteins and amino acids are broken down to release ammonia, usually in the form of ammonium ions. Ammonia is then converted to nitrogen and the cycle continues.

Assimilation

Assimilation is the process by which plants and animals use and incorporate nitrogen and ammonia previously produced by nitrogen fixation and nitrification.

Denitrification

Denitrification is the conversion of nitrate (NO3) to gas (N2) by anaerobic bacteria. Denitrification usually occurs only when little or no oxygen is present.

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For which type of lesion would a bandage be most important in order to keep bacteria and other pathogens from entering the body?.

Answers

The type of lesion in which a bandage would be most important in order to keep bacteria and other pathogens from entering the body is an ulcer.

What is ulcer tissue damage?

The expression ulcer tissue damage makes reference to open tissue associated with a painful sore. One of the most common types of ulcer is stomach ulcer, which is very harmful to the organism due to the release of acid gastric juices.

Generally, ulcers are caused by infections such as bacterial infections that are able to cause serious damage to the tissues and thus lead to painful sores in different organs of the body such as the stomach.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that ulcer tissue damage may be caused by different infections including bacterial infections and lead to painful sores that need to be cured by a bandage and or alternative procedures.

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True or False: Weather forecasting is an exact science? Meteorologists can pinpoint the exact location of a thunderstorm?

Answers

Answer: false

Explanation:

Though they can tell you the state and city it is hard to pinpoint the exact location. And weather normally changes closer to the day

It is important too so many trials in an experiment to…

Answers

Scientists employ replicated experiments and repeated trials to test hypotheses to ensure that they consistently arrive at the same conclusion and that the initial result wasn't just a lucky guess. They must be certain that the response to their theory is always exactly the same.

The scientist is better able to comprehend the results of the test when the conditions of the experiment are under control. It's not always possible to control every aspect of a test, especially when the hypothesis is being proved for the first time. A hypothesis may be tested by making predictions about patterns that should emerge if the theory is true, especially if conducting a controlled experiment is impractical or impossible for ethical reasons. The scientist gathers information from as many patterns as they can reasonably test or push to be tested. The principle supporting the hypothesis becomes stronger the more experiments the scientist does.When conducting tests, independent and dependent variables are used. Independent and dependent variables are present in an experiment involving two groups, such as when plants are given water on one set and none on the other. Because it is not dependent on chance, the group that receives water in this example is the independent variable. The water is deliberately applied by the scientist. The response that is examined in an experiment to determine if the treatment had any effect is known as the dependent variable. It depends on the independent variable since the lack of water on the group of plants demonstrates whether the scientist's application alters the result.

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among the agta of the philippines, women not only gather, they also a. fish, while carrying their babies with them. b. are the primary warrior class, except when pregnant or breastfeeding. c. cultivate small food plots inside village defenses. d. hunt small animals and do some fishing. e. are the tribal leaders.

Answers

The Aeta are a nomadic people that only construct ad hoc, stick-and-leaf huts that are draped with palm leaves.Aeta communities and places with cleared mountains are now home to the more advanced Aetas.They reside in homes made of cogon grass and bamboo.

Describe about agta people?

The indigenous population of the nation has steadily declined due to mining, deforestation, illicit logging, and slash-and-burn farming, now numbering only a few thousand people.The Aeta have become very nomadic as a result of social and economic pressures on their culture and way of life, which had previously stayed constant for thousands of years, and the Philippine government offers them little to no protection. As hunter-gatherers, adaptation plays an important role in Aeta communities to survive. This often includes gaining knowledge about the tropical forest that they live in, the typhoon cycles that travel through their area, and other seasonal weather changes that affect the behavior of the flora and fauna in their location.Another important survival skill is storytelling. Like many other hunter-gatherer societies, the Aeta promote social values, such as cooperation, through stories. Thus, they highly value skilled storytellers.Aeta hunters, as depicted in the Boxer Codex (c. 1595).For many Aeta communities, the dry season means hard work.With the beginning of the dry season comes more hunting and fishing as well as swiddening the land in preparation for future harvest.Men and women in the Aeta community work together to clear the land, but women typically harvest the majority of the crops.They also conduct commerce with non-Aeta communities in the area at this time, either to sell the food they have collected or to hire them as temporary farmers or field workers.Women from the Aeta community participate more actively in economic dealings with non-Aeta communities, typically as dealers and field laborers for lowland farmersDifferent implements are used by Aeta cultures for hunting and gathering.Traps, knives, and bows and arrows with various arrow points for specific uses are examples of traditional tools.The majority of Aetas, including Aeta women, begin training for hunting and gathering at age 15.Most Aeta women prefer knives and frequently hunt with their dogs and in groups to maximize efficiency and for social purposes, whereas males and some women typically use the conventional bow and arrow.Males and females both engage in food collecting and fishing.Therefore, Aeta societies are more gender equal in both organization and practice.

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