What numbers could replace each letter to make both of the number sentences true?

Answer:

I'm so confused. I don't get the question. I know the options are:

A) 3,4, 5

B) 2, 10, 4

C) 2, 10, 3

D) 2, 15, 2

but I don't understand the question. Could you maybe be a bit more specific?

the ans for this q would be 5/27

Answer:

the answer would be 12-19+23=18 so you need a new calculator

Step-by-step explanation:

yes

Answer:

6 .x = 121°

Sum of all interior angles of a 7 sided polygon is 900°.

Answer:

See below ↓

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a graph given to us.

⇒ Take the points to form an equation!

The points

Making an equation

Take two points

Slope:-

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail m=\dfrac{6-1}{4+2}=\dfrac{5}{6}[/tex]

Equation in point slope form

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail y-1=5/6(x+2)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail 6y-6=5x+10[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail 6y=5x+16[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail y=5/6x+8/3[/tex]

Answer:

Formula

Volume of a rectangular prism = width × length × height

Bottom Tier

volume = 12 × 18 × 8

            = 1,728 cm³

Middle Tier

volume = 8 × 12 × 6

            = 576 cm³

Top Tier

volume = 4 × 4 × 4

            = 64 cm³

Entire Cake

Volume = bottom tier + middle tier + top tier

             = 1728 + 576 + 64

             = 2,368 cm³

Answer:

20%

Step-by-step explanation:

add up all the values, then do 9 (alex's score) and divide it by 45 (total that was added up)

Answer:

A. 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Add all basketball shots then divide by 5

Answer:

D. would be the correct answer

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

From the question,

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

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Answer:

  7 m, 24 m, 25 m

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem can be solved by writing an equation expressing the given relationships and the Pythagorean theorem. Or, it can be solved by reference to common Pythagorean triples. Here, we're interested in a triple that has a difference of 1 between the hypotenuse and the longer leg. Such triples include:

  {3, 4, 5}, {5, 12, 13}, {7, 24, 25}, {9, 40, 41}, {11, 60, 61}, ...

We note that for the triple {7, 24, 25}, the longer leg is 3 more than 3 times the shorter leg: 3 +3(7) = 24.

The side lengths are:

__

In case you're unfamiliar with Pythagorean triples, or you want to write the equation, you can let s represent the length of the shorter side. Then the longer side is (3s+3) and the hypotenuse is (3s+4). The Pythagorean theorem tells you the relation is ...

  (3s +4)² = (3s +3)² +s²

  9s² +24s +16 = 9s² +18s +9 +s²

  s² -6s -7 = 0 . . . . . subtract the left side and put in standard form

  (s -7)(s +1) = 0 . . . . factor

  s = 7  or  -1 . . . . . . solutions to the equation

The side length must be positive, so the shorter leg is 7 meters long. Then the other two legs are ...

  3s +3 = 3(7) +3 = 24 . . . . meters

  3s +4 = 3(7) +4 = 25 . . . . meters

The side lengths are 7 m, 24 m, and 25 m.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Prove by multiplication

Similarly

So the expression is 5873/8

Now

We can prove the given statement to multiplication

Multiply with 8

And

Yes

We see 5873 lies between 5600 and 6400 hence the quotient is greater than 700 but less than 800

Using it's concept, it is found that the probability that the next trial will result in a 2 and 4 is given by:

A. [tex]\frac{3}{10}[/tex].

A probability is given by the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

In an experimental probability, the number of outcomes are taken from previous trials.

In this problem, the table states that of 20 trials, 6 resulted in either (2,4) or (4,2), hence the probability is given by:

p = 6/20 = 3/10.

Which means that option A is correct.

More can be learned about probabilities at https://brainly.com/question/14398287

Answer:

friday

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

As Per Provided Information

An ellipse has a vertex at (0, −7), a co-vertex at (4, 0), and a center at the origin (0,0) .

We have been asked to find the equation of the ellipse in standard form .

As we know the standard equation of an ellipse with centre at the origin (0,0). Since its vertex is on y-axis

[tex] \underline\purple{\boxed{\bf \: \dfrac{ {y}^{2} }{ {a}^{2} } \: + \: \dfrac{ {x}^{2} }{ {b}^{2} } = \: 1}}[/tex]

where,

Substituting these values in the above equation and let's solve it

[tex] \qquad\sf \longrightarrow \: \dfrac{ {y}^{2} }{ {( - 7)}^{2} } \: + \dfrac{ {x}^{2} }{ {(4)}^{2} } = 1 \\ \\ \\ \qquad\sf \longrightarrow \: \dfrac{ {y}^{2} }{49} \: + \frac{ {x}^{2} }{16} = 1 \\ \\ \\ \qquad\sf \longrightarrow \: \: \dfrac{ {x}^{2} }{16} \: + \dfrac{ {y}^{2} }{49} = 1[/tex]

Therefore,

So, your answer is 2nd Picture.

Recall the geometric sum,

[tex]\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} x^k = \frac{1-x^k}{1-x}[/tex]

It follows that

[tex]1 - x + x^2 - x^3 + \cdots + x^{2020} = \dfrac{1 + x^{2021}}{1 + x}[/tex]

So, we can rewrite the integral as

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty \frac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 + x^2 + 1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^{2021}) - \ln(1 + x)}{\ln(x)} \, dx[/tex]

Split up the integral at x = 1, and consider the latter integral,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_1^\infty \frac{x^2 + 1}{x^4 + x^2 + 1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^{2021}) - \ln(1 + x)}{\ln(x)} \, dx[/tex]

Substitute [tex]x\to\frac1x[/tex] to get

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{\frac1{x^2} + 1}{\frac1{x^4} + \frac1{x^2} + 1} \frac{\ln\left(1 + \frac1{x^{2021}}\right) - \ln\left(1 + \frac1x\right)}{\ln\left(\frac1x\right)} \, \frac{dx}{x^2}[/tex]

Rewrite the logarithms to expand the integral as

[tex]\displaystyle - \int_0^1 \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \frac{\ln(x^{2021}+1) - \ln(x^{2021}) - \ln(x+1) + \ln(x)}{\ln(x)} \, dx[/tex]

Grouping together terms in the numerator, we can write

[tex]\displaystyle -\int_0^1 \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \frac{\ln(x^{2020}+1)-\ln(x+1)}{\ln(x)} \, dx + 2020 \int_0^1 \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx[/tex]

and the first term here will vanish with the other integral from the earlier split. So the original integral reduces to

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \frac{\ln(1-x+\cdots+x^{2020})}{\ln(x)} \, dx = 2020 \int_0^1 \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx[/tex]

Substituting [tex]x\to\frac1x[/tex] again shows this integral is the same over (0, 1) as it is over (1, ∞), and since the integrand is even, we ultimately have

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \frac{\ln(1-x+\cdots+x^{2020})}{\ln(x)} \, dx = 2020 \int_0^1 \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx \\\\ = 1010 \int_0^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx \\\\ = 505 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx[/tex]

We can neatly handle the remaining integral with complex residues. Consider the contour integral

[tex]\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{1+z^2}{1+z^2+z^4} \, dz[/tex]

where γ is a semicircle with radius R centered at the origin, such that Im(z) ≥ 0, and the diameter corresponds to the interval [-R, R]. It's easy to show the integral over the semicircular arc vanishes as R → ∞. By the residue theorem,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4}\, dx = 2\pi i \sum_\zeta \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{1+z^2}{1+z^2+z^4}, z=\zeta\right)[/tex]

where [tex]\zeta[/tex] denotes the roots of [tex]1+z^2+z^4[/tex] that lie in the interior of γ; these are [tex]\zeta=\pm\frac12+\frac{i\sqrt3}2[/tex]. Compute the residues there, and we find

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^2+x^4} \, dx = \frac{2\pi}{\sqrt3}[/tex]

and so the original integral's value is

[tex]505 \times \dfrac{2\pi}{\sqrt3} = \boxed{\dfrac{1010\pi}{\sqrt3}}[/tex]

Answer:

n = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

[ 180° ( n - 2 ) ] / n = 162°  

180 ( n - 2 ) = 162 n

180n - 360 = 162n

18n = 360

n = 20

Answer:

ok so we have 10 gallons left and we get 40 miles per gallon so this is just multiplycaiton

10*40=400

so you can get 400 more miles

Hope This Helps!!!

Answer:

True

Determine whether x+2 is a factor of x³-3x²-7x+6:

↓

[tex]True[/tex]

I hope this helps you

:)

Answer:

A on edge

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

A triangle is a three-edged polygon with three vertices. The length of QS is equal to 17 units.

A triangle is a three-edged polygon with three vertices. It is a fundamental form in geometry. The sum of all the angles of a triangle is always equal to 180°.

Given that the Line l is a perpendicular bisector of line segment RQ and bisects it at point T. Therefore, the length of the two lines is,

RT = QT

Now, in ΔRST and ΔQST,

RT ≅ QT

ST ≅ ST {Common side}

Now, since the two triangles are the right-angled triangle, therefore, the two triangles are congruent. Thus, we can write,

RS = SQ

Given that the Line segment, RS is 3x+2. Line segment SQ is 5x-8.

RS = SQ

3x + 2 = 5x - 8

2 + 8 = 5x - 3x

10 = 2x

x = 5

QS = 5x - 8

     = 5(5) - 8

     = 25 - 8

     = 17 units

Hence, the length of QS is equal to 17 units.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Ratio of sides of  45-45-90 triangle =  x : x : x√2

x√2 is the side opposite to angle 90

So, from the picture,

x√2 = 2√2

x = [tex]\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]

x = 2

Ratio of sides of 30-60-90 tirangle = a : 2a : a√3

Short side that is oppoiste to 30° = a

Side opposite to 60° = a√3

Hypotenuse (oppoiste to 90°) = 2a

a = 2

y =a√3

  y = 2√3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

View the attached graph for what your image should look like.

I hope this helps or gives you a picture of what it should look like, because it's quite a long process.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance between 2 points on a number line uses the following equation:

point2 - point1.

In this case we get 15 - (-15) which equals 30.

It looks like your question is incomplete. I believe you also have options to pick which graph is correct. However, I can still give you the information you are looking for.

The slope of the line is -1.2

The Y-intersect is (0, 4)

I have also attached an image of what the graph would look like.

Hope this helps.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a Geometric Sequence  with common ratio 15/9 = 5/3

25/15  is also =  5/3

So the 10th term = ar^(n-1)

= 9*(5/3)^9

= 893.061 to nearest thousandth.

Answer:

34496

Step-by-step explanation:

i dont know how 2 explain this but you have to do the traditional way of multiplying PLS MARK BRAINLIEST

Answer:

-9/25

Step-by-step explanation:

-1^10 = -1

since (-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1)(-1) = -1

Anything to the power of 0 is 1 so -22^0 = 1

Now our equation is -1 + 1 -(3/5)^2

Simplifying this:

0 -9/25 =

-9/25

Answer:

in fraction: 41/25

= 1.64

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](-1)^{10} =1[/tex]

[tex](-22)^{0} =1[/tex]

[tex](\frac{3}{5} )^{2} =\frac{9}{25}[/tex]

Then

[tex]1+1-\frac{9}{25} =2-\frac{9}{25} =\frac{50}{25} -\frac{9}{25} =\frac{41}{25}[/tex]

decimal: 1.64

Hope this helps

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx[/tex]

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

[tex]\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx[/tex]

Substitute x = 1/2 arccot(u/2), which transforms the integral to

[tex]\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du[/tex]

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

[tex]\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz[/tex]

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

[tex]\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}[/tex]

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}[/tex]

and it follows that

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}[/tex]