Medical use is the key distinction between schedule i and schedule ii drugs listed under the controlled substances act.
Controlled Substance Act (CSA) Scheduling or CSA Scheduling by Alphabetical Order is a list of medicines and their schedule. These listings only include the fundamental chemical; they may not cover the salts, isomers, salts of isomers, esters, ethers, and derivatives that may also fall under the category of banned substances. Drugs and other substances classified as Schedule I have a significant potential for misuse and no US-approved acknowledged medicinal purpose.
Schedule II: The medication or substance has a high potential for abuse and is being used for a medical purpose in the US or is currently used for a medical purpose with tight limitations. Drug or substance abuse can result in significant psychological or physical dependence.
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which points would the nurse consider while preparing strategies to improve the quality of health care provided
The points which the nurse would consider while preparing strategies to improve the quality of healthcare provided include the following:
Appropriate feedback cycles.Specialty outreach programmes.Chronic disease management programmes.What is Healthcare?This is defined as the process in which health is improved through the adequate diagnosis and treatment of an illness and is done by professionals such as doctors, nurses etc.
The quality of healthcare can be improved through appropriate feedback cycles so as to know the weaknesses and working to improve it. There should also be chronic disease management programmes which helps to effectively manage it and lessen the burden on health workers.
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Select a word root or element that appears in the text book. Find a non-medical term that contains this word root. Define your word root and the term in which it appears. For example, sarc/o means flesh. The non-medical term sarcasm contains the root sarc and means a cutting remark intended to ridicule. You may use any word root or element that appears in the text. Remember that the word you select must be a non-medical term. You should also provide some insight as to why you find the term interesting. Keep in mind that just because a non-medical term has the same letters as the medical element does not mean that they come from the same root. For example, the word monster looks like it has the prefix mon/o. It doesn't. You need to research your non-medical term rather that just relying on appearance.
The addition of prefixes and suffixes (beginnings and endings) transforms a root word into a new term (suffixes). A root term would be evident.
You can create new words like unclear, clearly, and cleared by prefixing and suffixing existing ones. From a single root word, all of these words have developed. Because it serves as the foundation for a new term, a root word is a simple word to which affixes (prefixes and suffixes) are added. The root word can be used as a separate term. The suffixly is added to the word love, for instance, to create the word beautiful. Our daily vocabulary includes words like reform, information, deformed, and form, all of which derive from the root form, which implies "shape." For instance, the word "form" simply means "to shape," whereas the word "reform" just means "to shape again."
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according to education law, article 130, section 6502, to practice in this state, all registered professional nurses, nurse practitioners, and licensed practical nurses must register with the new york state:
All registered professional nurses, nurse practitioners, and licensed practical nurses must register with the New York State Education Department.
The New York State Education Department :The New York State Education Department, a division of the state government, is in charge of overseeing all public schools in the state, all standardized testing, as well as the development and delivery of state exams and Regents Examinations.
The department's primary offices are housed in the Albany, New York, state capital's 89 Washington Avenue-based New York State Department of Education Building.
What does the New York State Education Department do?This section is in charge of certifying teachers and other educational professionals, as well as managing initiatives to enhance teacher preparation and recruiting. It also supervises colleges, universities, and proprietary institutions.
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a newborn infant who is small for gestation age is noted to have shortened palpebral fissures and microcephaly with a small jaw. this infant is most likely to be diagnosed with:
This infant is most likely to be diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome.
A disorder known as fetal alcohol syndrome affects children exposed to alcohol during their mother's pregnancy. Brain damage and developmental problems result from fetal alcohol syndrome.The problems caused by fetal alcohol syndrome vary from child to child, but the damage is irreversible. There are no safe limits to alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can cause fetal alcohol syndrome. If you suspect your child has fetal alcohol syndrome, call your doctor right away. Early diagnosis can reduce learning disabilities and behavioral problems. Some children experience much more severe symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome than others, and the severity varies.Fetal alcohol syndrome can present with various physical malformations, intellectual or cognitive deficits, and difficulty adjusting to daily life and functioning.Therefore, the correct answer is fetal alcohol syndrome.
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after the medical history is obtained and the physical exam is completed, the attending medical professional writes a detailed
Patients are required to give a medical history and undergo a physical examination upon admission to the facility. The attending physician then creates a thorough admission summary.
Consider your timing. While general practice typically allots a total of 10 minutes for history, examination, and explanation, hospital consultants may give up to an hour for new patient visits (you are doing very well if you manage to fit in some health promotion). A recommendation letter is helpful for secondary treatment as well, but if the patient is new to you, you might need to quickly get the point of their tale. Therefore, it's crucial to be effective and determined.
If the consultation goes over the allotted time, you will need to decide if you can continue (while keeping in mind your commitments to other patients who are waiting to see you) or if you need to ask the patient to come back for another appointment.
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which is the most important step in the management of the airway in a patient with an esophagogastric varice?
The most crucial step in managing the patient's airway when they have esophagogastric varices is suction.
It's critical for management to calculate blood loss precisely. A patient with unstable hemodynamics may require vigorous suction and volume resuscitation.
Esophageal varices are abnormal, swollen veins in the tube that joins the throat and stomach (esophagus). The most frequent cause of this illness among people affected is severe liver issues. Esophageal varices can develop when a clot or scar tissue in the liver restricts normal blood flow to the liver.
To get around the blockages, blood enters smaller blood vessels that are not designed to carry large volumes of blood. The blood arteries can burst, resulting in potentially fatal hemorrhage. A variety of drugs and medical treatments can be used to control or prevent the bleeding that might result from esophageal varices.
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which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? a patient diagnosed with: group of answer choices
The nurse should assess a patient diagnosed with renal failure.
Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis.
Hypernatremia is resulted by Diabetes Insipidus.
Respiratory acidosis is brought on by pulmonary conditions, however hyperkalemia is unaffected.
What is respiratory acidosis?
When the lungs are unable to expel all of the carbon dioxide the body produces, a condition known as respiratory acidosis develops. Body fluids, particularly the blood, become too acidic as a result.
What is Hypernatremia?
Most frequently, those who don't drink enough water develop hypernatremia. Usually, this is brought on by insufficient thirst or poor judgment. Examples include a person who suffers from dementia or a baby who has trouble accessing fluids.
Metabolic acidosis: What is it?
Metabolic acidosis refers to the accumulation of acid in the body brought on by renal disease or kidney failure. Insufficient acid excretion, excessive acid production, or an inability to maintain a healthy balance of acid in your body are all symptoms of having too much acid in your body fluids.
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functional foods are whole or modified foods that contain bioactive food components believed to provide health benefits, such as reduced disease risks, beyond the benefits that their nutrients confer.
All whole foods are functional in the some respects since they supply at least some necessary nutrients, but specific foods stand out as rich suppliers of bioactive dietary components.
Functional food :A functional food is one that claims to have a new purpose by combining two or more current ingredients. The phrase may also refer to features that have been purposefully bred into existing food plants, such as violet or gold potatoes with higher anthocyanin or carotenoid levels.
What are the simplest types of functional foods?Whole foods, such as fruits and vegetables, are the most basic example of functional foods. Functional foods include foods that have been supplemented, enriched, or enhanced with nutrients, phytonutrients, or botanicals, as well as nutrition supplements.
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high-achieving nursing students were found to have studied in small groups, attended class 100% of the time, took frequent rest breaks during study sessions, and ate a balanced diet for 1 week before the examination. what type of audit provided data about the students’ preparation?
The correct answer is Process Audit as process audits concentrate on procedures rather than a particular person or product. The organization's procedures are verified during a process audit.
A process audit looks at the outcomes to see if the actions, resources, and behaviors that led to them were handled effectively and efficiently. Process audits must determine whether outcomes are being produced by an efficiently managed process in order to qualify as process audits.
What is a process that is managed effectively?
A successful process is one that achieves the goals, or the planned outcomes. When actions, resources, and behaviors are planned, organized, and controlled so that the outcomes meet predetermined goals, the process is said to be effectively managed.
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at mealtimes, the best way to be sure children are receiving adequate nutrition from the foods they eat is to
Allowing children to choose among nutritious foods prepared for the family at mealtimes is the greatest method to ensure they acquire nutritional adequacy from of the foods they eat.
What is nutritional adequacy?Nutritional adequacy is described as consuming enough key nutrients to meet nutritional requirements for good health. The requirement for a certain nutrient may be at a lower or greater intake amount depending on the criterion of adequacy chosen.
What is the significance of appropriate nutrition?A nutritious diet promotes successful pregnancy outcomes, promotes normal growth, and development, and appropriate aging aids in the maintenance of healthy body weight, and lowers the risk of chronic disease, all of which contribute to overall health and wellness.
How do you determine nutrient sufficiency?The mean adequacy ratio (MAR) was determined as the total of NARs for all nutrients assessed multiplied by the number of nutrients assessed, given as a percentage.
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Constantly praising kids as “special” or “exceptional” and applauding every little achievement results in high-achieving, well-adjusted adolescents and young adults.
TRUE OR FALSE
which of the following statements regarding the amount of carbohydrate you should consume daily is incorrect?
The statement (B) "The AMDR for carbohydrates is 20 to 35 percent of your total daily calories." is incorrect.
The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of meals and beverages. Most carbohydrates are found naturally in meals made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbohydrates in the form of starch or extra sugar.
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 45% to 65% of daily calories should come from carbs. Therefore, if you consume 2,000 calories per day, 900 to 1,300 of those calories should come from carbs. That equates to 225 to 325 grams of carbohydrates each day.
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Question correction:
Which of the following statements regarding the amount of carbohydrate you should consume daily is incorrect?
A) The minimum amount of carbohydrate needed for the brain to function efficiently is 130 grams per day.
B) The AMDR for carbohydrates is 20 to 35 percent of your total daily calories.
C) Eating the recommended daily servings for each food group in MyPyramid will ensure that you meet your minimum amount of carbohydrate.
D) In the United States, adult males and females consume more than the minimum DRI for carbohydrates.
When analgesic drugs are used to control arthritis pain, this is an example of the ________ use of drugs. a. therapeutic b. pharmacologic c. preventive d. diagnostic
When analgesic drugs are used to control arthritis pain, this is an example of the therapeutic use of drugs.
Therapeutic drug monitoring, often known as TDM, is a test that quantifies the concentration of specific drugs in your blood. Ensure that the dosage of medication you are taking is both secure and efficient, this is done.
Without specialized testing, the majority of medications can be dosed correctly. However, it can be challenging to determine dosage for some medications that will treat your disease while avoiding harmful side effects. TDM aids your doctor in determining whether you are receiving the proper dosage of your medication.
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1. in the blank model, individual health is the focus. it measures health in terms of blank, and improvement in health occurs by medical intervention such as prescribing blank. another way of improving health in the medical model is by performing a procedure like blank. the public health model is also called the blankmodel. in this model, the focus shifts to blankhealth management and disease prevention. the individual is no longer the focus, and the funding shifts to community health. hygiene, sanitation, hazardous work conditions, drug abuse, and even blankare issues that the public health model addresses. since prevention is important in the public health model, blank, such as regular checkups and screenings, is a critical part of managing health. the primary difference between the two models is that one addresses treating individual illness, and the other addresses blank.
These are the missing words in the paragraph:
medicaldiseasemedicationsurgeryecologicalpopulationstressaccess to health caredisease preventionIn the ecological model individual health is the focus. It measures health in terms of disease prevention and improvement in health occurs by a medical intervention such as prescribing medication. Another way of improving health in the medical model is by performing a procedure like surgery. The public health model is also called the access to healthcare model. In this model the focus shifts to population health management and disease prevention. The individual is no longer the focus and the funding shift to community health. Hygiene, sanitation, hazardous work conditions, drug abuse, and even stress are issues that the public health model addresses.
Since prevention is important in the public health model, medical such as regular checkups and screenings is a critical part of management health. The primary difference between the two models is that one addresses treating individual illness and the other addresses disease.
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Question correction:
In the _____ model, individual health is the focus. It measures health in terms of ____ , and improvement in health occurs by medical intervention such as prescribing _____. Another way of improving health in the medical model is by performing a procedure like ____. The public health model is also called the ____ model. In this model, the focus shifts to ____ health management and disease prevention. The individual is no longer the focus, and the funding shifts to community health. Hygiene, sanitation, hazardous work conditions, drug abuse, and even ____ are issues that the public health model addresses. Since prevention is important in the public health model, ____ , such as regular checkups and screenings, is a critical part of managing health. The primary difference between the two models is that one addresses treating individual illness, and the other addresses ____ .
g. lo muzio real life benralizumab effectiveness in patients with severe eosinophilic asthma after a 24 month observation
To assess the real-world effectiveness of benralizumab in SEA with or without CRSwNP.
What is the objective of above study ?There were 137 individuals with late-onset SEA in total; 57.7% (or 79 of 137) of them had CRSwNP. After 24 weeks of treatment, there was a general decrease in severe asthma exacerbations from 4 (3-6) to 0 (0-2) (P .0001), and significant improvements were seen as early as 4 weeks in the ACT score, OCS dosage, forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1)%, FEV1 (L), forced vital capacity (FVC)%, FEV1/FVC% (P .0001), and forced expiratory flow between 25% and 7 Basophils and eosinophils were rapidly decreased from peripheral blood. SNOT-22 dropped from 46 (39.5-64.5) to 32 (19-46) in patients with SEA+CRSwNP (P .0001). Additionally, they responded better to ACT minimal clinically meaningful difference (P =.0387), FEV1%, and SEA than SEA.
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Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea is a condition characterized by the interrelated factors of _________.
Answer:our answer is energy deficit,menstrual dysfunction,and loss of bone mineral density.
Explanation:Please give brainliest if right.
when developing the plan of care for a client with schizophrenia who is in the acute phase of illness, the nurse understands that the client is at high risk for what?
Premature death is substantially more common in those with schizophrenia than in the general population. The main causes are malignancies linked to obesity and cardiovascular disease.
A complex, long-lasting mental illness called schizophrenia is characterized by a variety of symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, language or behavioral disturbances, and cognitive deficits. Many patients and their families experience disability as a result of both cognitive symptoms, such as impairment of attention, working memory, or executive function, and negative symptoms (characterized by loss or impairment), such as suspicion, delusions, and hallucinations. 1, 2 Relapses can also occur as a result of positive symptoms such as suspicion, delusions, and hallucinations in neurotransmission.Therefore, the above points must be kept in mind before treating a client with schizophrenia.
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a nurse educator determines that the present classroom environment is ineffective in promoting critical thinking. what methods could the educator employ in the classroom to improve critical thinking? (select all that apply.)bf enus850us850
Answer:
you need to include the following answers so i can help you respond to this so i can comeback and help you
Explanation:
a nurse is preparing to administer epoetin alfa 50 units/kg subcutaneous to an adolescent who weighs 110 lb. available is epoetin alfa injection 2,000 units/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
A nurse is preparing to administer epoetin alfa 50 units/kg subcutaneous to an adolescent who weighs 110 lb. Available is epoetin alfa injection 2,000 units/ml. The nurse should administer 0.45ml of dosage.
How should nurse administer the dosage?When local anesthetic is used for dosage in epidural infusions, excessive concentrations can result in severe motor blockage, immobility, and pressure ulcers, which are irritating to the patient (Lee, 1991).
To reduce the possibility of a calculation error when ward personnel prepare infusions, Wheatley et al. (2001) recommend the routine use of pre-filled epidural infusion bags.
The accuracy of nurses' medication estimates has been a source of worry (Duffin, 2000; Coombes, 2000). According to Hutton (1998a), the increased user-friendliness of medication formulations and the widespread usage of electronic drip counters have led to a certain amount of "de-skilling."
After a planned revision program, her investigation into students' drug calculating skills showed a considerable improvement over initial test results.
2.2lb/kg = 40lb
= 18.181818kg
50units/kg x 18.181818 = 909.090909 units
2,000 units/ml = 909.090909
units =⇒ 0.454545 ml
Therefore, after rounding off answer is 0.45ml
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A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. the nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by?
The arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by indicating the obstruction’s position and the collateral circulation.
Locating the locations of volume changes are by scanning the affected extremities.
Which ailment most frequently develops in coronary artery disease (CAD)?Atherosclerosis, a vascular damage caused by cholesterol plaque formation in the arteries, is the most frequent cause of CAD.
Which client is most at risk for coronary artery disease?Ages >45 for men and >55 for women are included in the age ranges when there is an increased risk of having CAD.
Reduced blood flow happens when one or more of these arteries become partially or completely blocked
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What is a key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs?
A key activity that significantly improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs is referred to as concurrent physician query and is denoted as option B.
What is Clinical documentation?This summarizes a patient's encounter with a healthcare professional and contains information about a patient's medical care which is entered in a medical record by an assigned person.
Concurrent physician query on the other hand, allows the relevant diagnosis done by the doctor to be noted while care is being rendered to the patient.
This helps to improves clinical documentation as part of the clinical documentation programs due to the detailed information about the patient which is contained in the records.
This is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
Retrospective coding reviewConcurrent physician queryRetrospective physician query.Group physician education.intermittent inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting muscarinic antagonists for asthma. rockville, md: agency for healthcare research and quality; 2018 5. jackson dj, bacharier
Efficacy of intermittent inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in different populations (0–4 years with recurrent wheezing, 5 years and older with persistent asthma, with or without long-acting beta-agonists [LABAs]).
Efficacy of additional long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMAs) in patients with uncontrolled persistent asthma aged 12 years and older. His SABA during RTI plus intermittent ICS benefits patients <5 years with recurrent wheezing. Although we found no difference between intermittent and controlled ICS use in patients with persistent asthma aged 12 years and older, few studies have provided evidence on this issue. In patients aged 12 years and older with persistent asthma, the use of ICS and LABA as both control and rapid palliative therapy may be more effective in preventing exacerbations than ICS
control (with or without LABA).
There is a nature. LAMA is effective in treating persistent uncontrolled asthma in patients aged 12 years and older, and current evidence shows no difference between LAMA and LABA as add-on therapy to ICS.
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transvaginal trigger point injections for pelvic floor myofascial spasm: a retrospective review of pain assessment and development of a treatment algorithm
Transvaginal Trigger Point Injections are a Retrospective Review of Pain Assessment and Development of a Treatment Algorithm for Pelvic Floor Myofascial Spasm.
Introduction:
To assess the effectiveness of trigger point injections (TPIs) for pelvic floor myofascial spasms, a retrospective chart review of visual analog scale (VAS) ratings was completed before and after the injections were done.
Methods:
There were 68 female patients who received TPIs between October 9, 2007, and March 12, 2015. The disparity between scores served as the main endpoint. Patients who need more TPIs underwent secondary analyses. The paired t-test and descriptive analyses were both performed.
Conclusions:
We present data on 68 female patients who received TPIs, with a 65% increase in VAS pain levels. APIs for pelvic floor myofascial spasms appear to be effective in lowering pain scores in patients who are unresponsive to first therapy.
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when at a clinical site, i will do my best to be cautious and work to prevent occupational exposure to infectious materials for myself, my fellow students, and all providers.
The statement "When at a clinical site, I will do my best to be cautious and work to prevent occupational exposure to infectious materials for myself, my fellow students, and all providers." is true.
No of whether a patient has a suspected or proven infection, Standard Precautions are the minimal infection prevention procedures that must be followed in any place where medical treatment is provided. These procedures are intended to safeguard DHCP as well as stop it from infecting patients. The usual precautions are:
hand cleanlinessPersonal protective equipment usage (e.g., gloves, masks, eyewear).Coughing manners and respiratory hygiene.Sharps security (engineering and work practice controls).secure injection techniques (i.e., aseptic technique for parenteral medications).sterile tools and equipment.the surfaces of the surroundings are clean and sanitized.Here is another question with an answer similar to this about Standard Precautions: https://brainly.com/question/2026998
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lateral retinal vasculitis in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus and its remission with rituximab therapy. lupus. 2010
The anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody rituximab, a medication with a proven role in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and promising results in case studies for the management of severe SLE.
What is Systemic lupus erythematosus?
Systemic lupus erythematosus patients can experience severe retinal vasculitis, which can result in blindness (SLE). A condition when the immune system assaults its own tissues and results in inflammation. Joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart, and lungs can all be impacted by lupus (SLE). Fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever are a few of the many symptoms that might occur.
These may occasionally deteriorate (flare-up) before recovering. Although there is no known cure for lupus, modern therapies aim to enhance quality of life by reducing flare-ups and regulating symptoms. Changes in food and lifestyle, such as using sunscreen, should be made first. Medication for further illness care comprises steroid and anti-inflammatory drugs.
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Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 53 in your Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting Book and use what you have learned to answer the following questions.
Susan knows that there are laws that govern the refilling of diazepam, which is a controlled substance. How do these laws affect Mr. Lehmke?
What should Susan do to respond to this medication refill request?
After talking with the patient, Dr. Penningworth has approved the request for one refill. What is Susan’s next step?
Lehmke may be impacted by the law if he has trouble obtaining the drug without a doctor's prescription.
How to illustrate the information?a. Diazepam is a Schedule 2 substance. Due to the addictive nature of this schedule of medicines, refills are typically not permitted. Mr. Lehmke may be impacted by this if he has trouble obtaining the drug without a doctor's prescription.
b. Despite the fact that this schedule of prescriptions cannot be renewed, there is still a chance of receiving the medication because the prescription has no expiration date. Susan has a big responsibility to make the best decision possible in this circumstance.
This can be accomplished by calling the relevant physician, checking for orders, and obtaining the prescriber's order.
Susan needs to let the patient know that the doctor must approve the oral order before any medication is given out.
c. Susan is now able to issue a refill for a week while preserving the necessary records of an oral prescription. The Emergency oral authorization must be accompanied by the pharmaceutical prescription. then make sure the Drug Enforcement Administration is notified.
To prevent legal repercussions, the pharmacist must first obtain Authorization for Emergency Dispensing from the authorized provider who placed the patient's prescription order.
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Case Study Susan Schults, CMA (AAMA), is working the medication refill line for Pearson Physicians Group. She has received a refill request from Adam Lehmke for his diazepam. When she reviews Mr. Lemke’s chart, she notices that Dr. Penningworth wrote a prescription for diazepam three months ago with two refills and realizes, based on the date, that Mr. Lehmke should still have two weeks of medicine.
1. Susan knows that there are laws that govern the refilling of diazepam, which is a controlled substance. How do these laws affect Mr. Lehmke?
2. What should Susan do to respond to this medication refill request?
3. After talking with the patient, Dr. Penningworth has approved the request for one refill. What is Susan’s next step?
Malcolm still remembers vivid details about the day of the terrorist attacks on 9/11. What almond-shaped brain structure is responsible for this phenomenon of connecting memories and strong emotions in such emotionally charged events?.
Answer: The amygdala
Explanation: The amygdala is almond-shaped and is involved in memory-making and emotional responses.
korsakoff's syndrome, which is sometimes suffered by chronic, heavy users of alcohol, is characterized by:
Korsakoff's syndrome (also known as Korsakoff's amnesia syndrome) is memory impairment resulting from vitamin B1 deficiency and is associated with alcoholism.
Korsakoff syndrome damages nerve cells and supporting cells in the brain and spinal cord, as well as parts of the brain responsible for memory. Symptoms include memory loss, tremors, coma, disorientation, and blurred vision. The main features of this disorder are problems acquiring new information or forming new memories and recalling previous memories. Although Wernicke and Korsakoff are related disorders, some scientists believe they are different stages of the same condition called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. A syndrome describes a disorder that progresses in "chronic" or long-lasting stages. Most symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy can be reversed if they are promptly and thoroughly recognized and treated. Stopping drinking can prevent further damage to your nerves and brain.
However, improvement in memory function is slow and usually incomplete. Without treatment, these conditions can be disabling and life-threatening.
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* the nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who acquired a nosocomial clostridium difficile infection. which would the nurse include in the instructions? quizlet
The nurse include in the instructions the Nosocomial clostridium difficile infections often result in flatus, stomach pain, and diarrhea.
Why should the nurse include instructions? what are they?
The main clinical sign of Clostridium difficile is diarrhea, which is frequently accompanied by extreme gas and abdominal discomfort. Vomiting or nausea are not symptoms of this viral illness. Clients should have a diet that is restriction-free, high in fiber, low in fat, and nutritionally balanced.
The instructions include cleaning and disinfecting household goods is crucial to preventing the spread of the infection since the C. difficile spore is rather resistant.
What does clostridium difficile do?
The germ (bacteria) C. diff, sometimes referred to as Clostridioides difficile or C. difficile, causes colitis and diarrhea (an inflammation of the colon).
Infections from it are thought to total close to 500,000 in the US annually. This bacteria is very infectious and can spread easily from one person to another very easily. There are also chances wherein the patient can contact the disease within 2 weeks after contacting it which is why it is crucial for the nurse to provide clear instructions about the preventing the spread.
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According to the big five, a person who can be described as anxious, tense, and insecure most likely scored high in __________. a. conscientiousness b. neuroticism c. agreeableness d. extraversion please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Answer: b neuroticism
Answer:
B. neuroticism
Explanation:
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