Think about each of the following. Which of these three triangles is impossible to draw?

Answer:

7 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the two points have the same y-coordinate of -5, the distance between them is due to the difference of their x-coordinates.

Distance

= 4-(-3)

= 4 +3

= 7 units

Note:

Should the two points have different x and y coordinates, you may use the distance formula below.

[tex]\boxed{\textcolor{steelblue}{\text{Distance between 2 points}= \sqrt{(y_1 - y_2)^{2} + (x_1 - x_2)^{2} } }}[/tex]

where (x₁, y₁) is the first coordinate and (x₂, y₂) is the second coordinate

Answer: 7xy + 2x^2t

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of the unknown angle is 53 degrees.

The length of the unknown side of the blue triangle is 4.43 cm

Right angle triangle have one of its angles as 90 degrees.

The sum of angle in a triangle is 180 degrees.

Therefore, the measure of the unknown angle can be calculated as follows:

let

x = unknown angle

x = 180 - 90 - 37 = 53°

Therefore, let's find the unknow length of the blue triangle.

tan 53 = opposite / adjacent

tan 53 = 6.9 / a

a = 6.9 / 1.327

a = 5.1996985682

a = 5.2

The green triangle hypotenuse = 5.2 + (5.2 - 2.6) = 7.8 cm

Therefore,

sin 59 = opposite / 7.8

opposite = 7.8 × 0.8571673007

opposite = 6.68590494548

opposite side = 6.69 cm

The hypotenuse of the blue triangle = 6.69 - 2 = 4.69 cm

Therefore,

sin 71 = x / 4.69

x = 4.69 × 0.94551857559

x = 4.43448211956

x = 4.43 cm

learn more on right triangle here: https://brainly.com/question/7894175

Triangle FBT is similar to triangle ADQ with a scale factor of 5/3. AD = 9; BF = 15, DQ = 6; BT = 10, FT = 21; AQ = 12.6

∠F = ∠A = 40°, ∠Q = ∠T = 55°, ∠B = ∠D = 85°

Similar triangles are triangles that have the same shape and the ratio of their corresponding sides are in the same proportion. Corresponding angles are equal.

triangle FBT is similar to triangle ADQ with a scale factor of 5/3.

AD = 9; BF = 9 * 5/3 = 15

DQ = 6; BT = 6 * 5/3 = 10

FT = 21; AQ = 21 * 3/5 = 12.6

∠F = ∠A = 40°, ∠Q = ∠T = 55°, ∠B = ∠D = 85°

Find out more on similar triangles at: https://brainly.com/question/2644832

Step-by-step explanation:

The smaller number is 18.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let larger number = x and  smaller number = \dfrac{2}{3} x32x

To find, the smaller number = ?

According to question,

x+\dfrac{2}{3} x=45x+32x=45

⇒ \dfrac{3x+2x}{3} =4533x+2x=45

⇒ 5x=45\times 35x=45×3

⇒ 5x=1355x=135

⇒ x =\dfrac{135}{5} =27x=5135=27

∴ Smaller number =\dfrac{2}{3} \times 27=2\times 9 =18=32×27=2×9=18

Hence, the smaller number is 18.

the number 2 is a factor of all even numbers (b)

2 is a factor of all even numbers (numbers that end with 2, 4, 6, 8, 0)

Option A) is wrong because 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 & numbers that end with the digits listed above are not evenly divisible by 2; this is the reason why Option C) is wrong.

In order for a digit/number to be a factor of a number, it should be evenly divisible by that number.

Hope everything is clear; if you need any more explanation/clarification, kindly let me know, and I will comment and/or edit my answer. :)

Based on the times that the machine produces cookies that have the optimal amount of chips, the proportion produced daily with the optimal number of chips is 62.5% or 0.625.

This can be found by the formula:

= (Hours that optimal cookies are produced) / Hours that the machine runs per day

5:30 am is the same as 5.5 hours because 30 minutes is half an hour.

1:30 pm is also the same as 13.5 hours by the above rule and in 24 hour notation.

Proportion of optimal cookies is therefore:

= (11 am - 6am) / (13.5 - 5.5)

= 5 / 8

= 0.625

= 62.5%

Find out more on optimal production at https://brainly.com/question/6348653.

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:

The formula is:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem, we have that:

The probability that exactly 2 out of 8 randomly selected ­Americans own a cat is P(X = 2), hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{8,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{6} = 0.2965[/tex]

0.2965 = 29.65% probability that exactly 2 out of 8 randomly selected ­Americans own a cat.

The probability that more than 3 own a cat is given by:

[tex]P(X > 3) = 1 - P(X \leq 2)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

Hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{8,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{8} = 0.0576[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{7} = 0.1977[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{8,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{6} = 0.2965[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0576 + 0.1977 + 0.2965 = 0.5518[/tex]

[tex]P(X > 3) = 1 - P(X \leq 2) = 1 - 0.5518 = 0.4482[/tex]

0.4482 = 44.82% probability that more than 3 own a cat.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

A:  16.2% (if you need it rounded, it is 16%)

B: 43.2% (if you need it rounded it is 43%)

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the candy bar percentage rate so we divide the amount of candy bars, by the total about of treats collected.

15 + 7 + 8 + 6 + 1 = 37

Now we divide the cady bars by the total amount:

6/37 = 16.2%

Now we do the same thing again but this time with the apples and gum:

16/37 = 43.2%

You did it!

Have a great day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

Step-by-step explanation:

the line equation

y = ax + b

gives us slope (a) and y-interception (b).

4x + 3y = 5

3y = -4x + 5

y = -4/3 × x + 5/3

the slope of the original line is therefore -4/3.

a perpendicular slope flips x and y upside-down and flips the sign.

so, the perpendicular slope of -4/3 is 3/4.

the desired line looks like

y = 3/4 × x + b

b we get by using the given point and its coordinates :

-3 = 3/4 × 3 + b = 9/4 + b

-12/4 = 9/4 + b

b = -21/4

so our full line equation is

y = 3/4 × x - 21/4

or

4y = 3x - 21

-3x + 4y = -21

Answer:

D. Mr. Anderson can travel 99.28 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

If Mr. Anderson has 4 gallons and each gallon moves him 24.82 miles you can multiply the number of miles per gallon by the gallon resulting in an equation that looks like 4*24.82=99.28.

Answer:

[tex]4 \sqrt{5} [/tex]

Answer: m=35, n=110

Step-by-step explanation:

Consecutive sides have sum 180°

And

Answer:

264sq feet

Step-by-step explanation:

because you only need to cover the top you multiply 22 x 12 to get 264 sq feet

Answer:

13.979

Step-by-step explanation:

log 625^5   =  5  log 625  = 5*2.79588=

Answer:

Exact Form:

1/4

Decimal Form:

0.25

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert -21/30 in the decimal form, we will neglect the negative sign and start dividing it in the normal manner and after the answer comes we will reunite the negative sign with the answer.

Kindly refer to the attachment for division.

Hence, -21/30 = -0.7

Answer:

Your answer is 0.7

Step-by-step explanation:

step one=21/30

Step two=21÷30

Answer=0.7

I hope that will help you

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

10/10 pieces of chalk

2/10 are pink

1/10 is blue

——————

So in total

3/10 are not white

The remaining 7 are white

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

10-1(blue)=9

2/10*10=2

9-2=7

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

area=length ×width

156=13×w

w=156/13=?

P=2(l+w)

P=2(13+w)

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

You add the to numbers together and the answer will be 22

I hope it helps! Have a great day!

Muffin ^^

The probability that the spinner will land on orange is the likelihhood of landing on orange

The probability that the spinner will land on orange is 0.75

From the question, we have:

Spinner section = 16

Orange section = 12

So, the probability that the spinner will land on orange is:

p = 12/16

Evaluate

p = 0.75

Hence, the probability that the spinner will land on orange is 0.75

Read more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope m=4

Y intercept b=(-5)

formula f(x)=4x-5

If u need how to solve do let me know

Answer:

I think so Last 3 figured are the correct answer

Answer: the area of the octagon is 52.8 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. find the equation to find the area of the given triangle:

                                   (1/2 * base * height)

2. plug in give numbers into equation: (1/2 * 3.3 * 4) = 6.6

3. since the base of the triangle fits into one of the sides of the octagon, we can assume the triangle can be fit perfectly for each of the sides, completing the octagon. for this, multiply the area of the triangle by eight (amount of sides in an octagon). 6.6 * 8 = 52.8

hope this helped! ♡ -moni

Answer:

4/8=2

-91/2=-45.5

by eliminate 4 by dividing by 8

Answer:26 + 15i

Step-by-step explanation: 26+ 15i is the answer because i did the assignemnt

845 / 5 = 169

Each person withdrew 169$ from their accounts.

[tex]-6n < -12\\\\\implies 6n > 12\\\\\implies n > \dfrac{12}6\\\\\implies n > 2[/tex]