Answer:
thick or nonwaterey
Explanation:
comparative study of combination therapy with non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs and different doses of low level laser therapy in acute low back pain.
In patients with acute low back pain, laser therapy combined with medication therapy was a more effective way to reduce pain and impairment than medication therapy alone, however the evidence for this conclusion is still insufficient.
65 patients were randomly divided into four groups for the current randomized, placebo-controlled investigation. Patients received only pharmacological therapy in group 1 (N = 20) and laser therapy (3 J/cm 2) in group 2 (N = 15) in addition to receiving medication.
A comparable treatment regimen to that of group 2 was administered to group 3 (N = 15), but the laser dose was 6 J/cm 2. Finally, group 4 (N = 15) received both medication therapy and a placebo laser treatment.Using a visual analogue scale and the Oswestry low back pain disability questionnaire, pain levels were compared between the groups. Significant differences were found between baseline pain scores and those from the first, second, third, and fourth weeks of laser therapy in all intervention groups.Additionally, the outcomes of the intergroup analyses demonstrated a substantial distinction between group 1 and groups 2 and 3. After laser therapy, there was a significant ODI difference between the groups.
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if a food label states that a food contains 6 grams of dietary fiber per serving and the daily value is 30 grams, the food would contain percent of the daily value for dietary fiber.
The food would contain 20 percent of the daily value for dietary fiber.
A high-fiber diet seems to lower the chance of acquiring a number of illnesses, including colon cancer, diverticular disease, heart disease, diabetes, and diverticular disease. Fiber is crucial for decreasing cholesterol and maintaining intestinal health.
To determine the percentage of the daily value of dietary fiber, we must divide dietary fiber that the food contains (6 grams) per serving to the daily value (30 grams) and multiply the answer to a hundred to make it a percentage::
(6 grams/ 30 grams) x 100 = 20%
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5. swapping lower-fiber foods for higher-fiber foods at each meal and snack can help you meet your fiber needs. using the source analysis: dietary fiber for both days, if you made the following food swaps, which one would yield the greatest increase in dietary fiber?
The step one would yield the greatest increase in dietary fiber because the diet rich in fiber helps to keep digestive system fit and healthy.
What is fiber?Fiber is also known as roughage which is the derived portion of the plant in the form of food and it is impossible to break down the fiber completely with the help of enzymes found in human beings.
The average percentage of fiber a woman should add in her diet is 21-25 grams of fiber in a single day and the food which can provide fiber is berries, popcorn, avocados, and beans.The main advantage of taking fiber is that it helps to normalize the bowel movement that lead to maintain health of bowel.
Therefore, The step one would yield the greatest increase in dietary fiber because the diet rich in fiber helps to keep digestive system fit and healthy.
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according to the conditioning explanation of the placebo effect, over years of treatment, the physician's white coat, the disinfectant smell in a waiting room, and the taste of each pill that is swallowed function as:
The conditioning explanation of the placebo effect, over years of treatment, the physician's white coat, the disinfectant smell in a waiting room, and the taste of each pill that is swallowed function as conditioned stimuli.
Placebo effectA placebo is a fictitious substance or treatment with no established therapeutic efficacy. Inert tablets, inert injections, sham surgery, and other treatments are examples of common placebos.
For example, if you become ill after eating a particular dish, you may link that food with being ill and avoid it in the future. Because classical conditioning associations can influence behavior, they may contribute to the placebo effect.
How does the placebo effect work?Placebos will not help you lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Placebos, on the other hand, function on symptoms modified by the brain, such as pain perception. "Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you," Kaptchuk explains.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to treat an uncomplicated uti. which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
"You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication."
The nurse should instruct the client to report any tendon discomfort as well as swelling or inflammation of the tendons due to the risk of tendon rupture
UTIs are common bacterial infections that occur when bacteria invade the urethra and infect the urinary tract, usually from the skin or rectum. Infections can affect various parts of the urinary system, but the most common is a bladder infection.
Another type of UTI is kidney infection (pyelonephritis). They are less common than bladder infections, but they are more serious.
Ciprofloxacin is a prescription drug used to treat bacterial infection symptoms. Cipro can be taken alone or in combination with other medications. Cipro belongs to the fluoroquinolone drug class. It is unknown whether ciprofloxacin is effective and safe in children under the age of one.
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evidence suggests that people with which type of deficiency will seek out foods to remedy the lack thereof?
Evidence suggests that people with sodium deficiency will seek out foods to remedy the lack thereof.
What happens if children don t get enough nutrients?Development throughout the first two years of life is crucial and has long-term consequences for a child's health. Poor baby and child nutrition can result in micronutrient deficiencies, which can lead to a compromised immune system and long-term repercussions on children's development and growth.
The first stage of iron deficiency :The labile iron pool is formed by RBCs. Iron deficiency manifests itself in different stages. The extent of depletion defines them; the first phase is depletion of iron storage, and in the later point in time, iron is only present in labile forms. If the adverse iron balance persists, anemia develops.
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to reduce the risk of chronic disease, help prevent weight gain, and help sustain weight loss, myplate recommends at least of moderate activity per week.
My plate suggests at least one moderate activity session each week to lower the risk of chronic disease, avoid weight gain, and support weight loss. Other suggestions include cutting back on sedentary behavior and eating three tablespoons of peanut butter
What is chronic disease?A condition or illness with a typical duration of three months or longer with the tendency to get worse over time. Chronic diseases, which may normally be managed but again not cured, are more common in older people. The most common types of chronic illness are cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes, as well as arthritis.
What causes chronic disease?Two major risk factors, using tobacco and being around secondhand smoke, are what cause the majority of chronic diseases. Poor nutrition, including meals that seem to be low in fruits and vegetables and high in salt and saturated fat inactivity in the body.
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Which type of psychology degree focuses more on the clinical practice and less on research?.
Answer:
That would be called a PsyD
Explanation:
A PsyD, or Doctor of Psychology, degree is a doctoral-level psychology training program that has an emphasis on clinical treatment of patients with mental health issues.
Why is it important to endure that all entries are posted to monthly statements correctly? if items are not posted correctly, how could this potentially impact the way patients view their clinic? how could not posting transactions affect the clinic?
Answer:
If items are not posted correctly, patients may believe that the clinic is not keeping accurate records. This could potentially impact the way patients view their clinic. Not posting transactions could also affect the clinic's bottom line.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Ensuring all entries are posted correctly is crucial for maintaining accurate financial records and building trust with patients.
Accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is essential for several reasons. First and foremost, it ensures that the clinic's financial records are precise and reliable. Any errors or omissions in the entries can lead to discrepancies in the clinic's financial statements, which may result in incorrect assessments of the clinic's financial health and performance.
When patients receive monthly statements, they expect them to be accurate and transparent. Incorrectly posted entries can lead to billing errors, overcharging, or undercharging patients, which can cause frustration and dissatisfaction among patients. It may lead to a loss of trust in the clinic's billing practices and overall quality of service.
Additionally, if transactions are not posted correctly, it can create confusion and difficulties in tracking patient payments, outstanding balances, and insurance reimbursements. This can result in delayed or missed payments, cash flow issues, and challenges in managing the clinic's revenue.
Moreover, inaccurate financial records can lead to compliance and regulatory issues. If the clinic is audited or required to provide financial documentation, discrepancies in the records can raise red flags and result in penalties or fines.
On the other hand, accurate posting of transactions ensures that the clinic maintains a high level of professionalism and credibility. Patients feel confident in the clinic's financial practices, leading to increased patient satisfaction and loyalty.
In conclusion, accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is crucial for maintaining financial integrity, building trust with patients, and ensuring the smooth financial operations of the clinic. By prioritizing accuracy and attention to detail, the clinic can avoid potential negative impacts on patient perceptions and establish a positive reputation within the community.
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which intervention would the nurse perform for an extremely agitated client who begins to pace around the mental health quizlet
Letting the client pace around the hallway from others.
Briefing :They can burn off their energy without irritating other clients if you let them pace. Their current mental state prevents them from focusing on anything else.
What is pace ?Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Older (PACE) is a sort of HCBS that helps some elderly people with their basic requirements, the majority of whom are qualified for both Medicare and Medicaid benefits, by offering medical services.
How does it work?When necessary, PACE offers coverage for prescription medications, doctor visits, transportation, home care, checkups, hospital visits, and even stays in nursing homes. Your ability to pay won't ever prevent you from receiving the care you require with PACE.
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The emergency room record must include the time, immediate care and treatment notes, final disposition, condition at discharge, instructions for follow-up, and _____________.
The record for the emergency room must include the following information: the time, notes on any immediate care and treatment, the outcome, the patient's condition at discharge, orders for any additional care, and the time of arrival.
Describe the emergency room:Serious illness patients are treated in the emergency room, and cardiac arrest is prevented in those who exhibit physiological instability symptoms at the time a patient enters the emergency room.
Triage is the initial step when a patient first enters the emergency room, which is now more commonly referred to as the Emergency Department. A nurse will normally classify each patient's health into one of three categories during triage: Immediately life threatening, moderate, or severe. urgent but not necessarily life-threatening right away.
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The nurse practicing in a labor setting knows that the woman most at risk for uterine rupture is?
The labor nurse is aware that the lady most at risk for uterine rupture is A gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births..
The correct option is D.
What is uterine rupture?A uterine rupture is a full separation of all three layers of the uterus. The majority of uterine ruptures occur when the uterus is gravid during a trial of labor following surgical birth.
What happens if the uterus ruptures?In rare situations, uterine rupture is fatal to both the mother and the infant. If left untreated, it can cause severe physical damage to the mother, including the inability to support future pregnancies. If their baby is still in the womb when the uterus ruptures, you may miscarry.
What exactly is a cesarean birth?Cesarean section (C-section) is a surgical procedure used to deliver a baby through incisions made in the abdomen as well as the uterus. If there are particular pregnancy difficulties, a C-section may be required. Women who have undergone a C-section may need another one.
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I understand that the question you are looking for is:
The nurse practicing in a labor setting knows that the woman most at risk for uterine rupture is:
a. A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births.
b. A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for delivery of a 10-pound infant.
c. A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and two cesarean births.
d. A gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.
studies have revealed that people who do not perform enough physical activity can lose about 80% of their muscles by the age of 65
According to a study, the decline in physical activity level and functional fitness was caused by aging and affected both men and women equally.
These disparities between young and old elderly persons were brought on by changes in body-fat percentage, flexibility, agility, and endurance as well as a decline in muscle strength in both the upper and lower limbs.
Sarcopenia with aging or sarcopenia related to aging is the cause. After the age of 30, physically inactive adults can lose up to 5% of their muscle mass per decade.
Between the ages of 30 and 80, there is a 30%–50% decline in muscular mass and strength, with the atrophy of type II muscle fiber being the primary culprit.In addition, after the age of 50, muscle strength declines at a rate of roughly 12%–14% every decade.Learn more about physical fitness here:
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a nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure and develops indications of severe digoxin toxicity. which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
When the nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure and develops indications of severe digoxin toxicity, the appropriate medication is Fab antibody fragments.
How to illustrate the information?The antigen-binding portion of an entire antibody, or Fab fragment, contains both the variable and constant portions of both the heavy and light chains. The CH2 and CH3 domains, also known as the crystallizable fragment, are attached to the two Fab fragments, which make up the "arms" of the IgG molecule (Fc). The Fab arms' primary job is to identify and bind antigen.
Traditionally, papain or pepsin-based enzymatic digestion of monoclonal antibodies yields Fab and F(ab′)2 fragments, which are then purified from the digestion mixture.
Therefore, when the nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure and develops indications of severe digoxin toxicity, the appropriate medication is Fab antibody fragments.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin for heart failure and develops indications of severe digoxin toxicity. which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Fab antibody fragments
Hydrocodone
Generic Zocor
Lisinopril
The nurse is assessing patients on the unit. which activity would the nurse perform during the diagnostic phase of the nursing process? select all that apply
The nursing diagnosis is the nurse's clinical judgment about the client's response to actual or potential health conditions or needs.
What is diagnostic phase ?The work done in the Diagnostic phase affects the success or failure of the Project and lays the groundwork for the implementation phases. The Diagnostic phase's goals are to assess whether a project is even necessary and, if so, to establish its parameters.
A scientific procedure that has been modified is used in nursing. Ida Jean Orlando introduced the four-stage nursing process as a description of nursing practise in 1958. It shouldn't be confused with health informatics or nursing theories. Later, the diagnosis phase was included.Learn more about Diagnostic phase here:
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Clinical documentation programs may focus on which outpatient settings: physician office, clinic, same day surgery, outpatient rehab center, emergency department, and ________.
Clinical documentation programs may focus on which outpatient settings: physician office, clinic, outpatient rehab, emergency department, and Interventional radiology.
What is Interventional radiology?Interventional radiology makes reference to the procedures used in the clinical setting for diagnosing and treating diseases by using catheters and X-ray-based methods and/or ultrasound.
In conclusion, clinical documentation programs may focus on which outpatient settings: physician office, clinic, outpatient rehab, emergency department, and Interventional radiology.
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a nursing home resident returns to the facility after receiving a hemodialysis treatment. which symptom observed by the charge nurse suggests that the client has developed disequilibrium syndrome?
The patient exhibits mental bewilderment, headaches, and sporadic muscle twitching, according to the nurse in Hemodialysis.
Hemodialysis complications like the dialysis disequilibrium syndrome are uncommon but significant. The symptoms range greatly, from agitation and migraine to death and coma. While cerebral edema and elevated intracranial pressure are the main causes of this illness and the focus of treatment, the exact mechanisms behind their development are yet unknown. Once this illness has manifested, it is extremely difficult to successfully treat Hemodialysis. Consequently, prevention actions are essential. In this overview, we'll look at the pathophysiology of this syndrome and talk about some things to think about.
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8. goals and desired outcomes for an older adult patient experiencing delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on
The goals and desired outcomes for an older adult patient experiencing delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on returning to premorbid levels of function.
What is the goals about?The desired total goal is that the patient that is said to have delirium will return to the height of functioning held prior the growth of delirium.
Note that showing the motor responses to noxious stimuli is a good way or indicator for a patient whose arousal is said to have been compromised.
Therefore, The goals and desired outcomes for an older adult patient experiencing delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on returning to premorbid levels of function.
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Goals and outcomes for an older adult patient experiencing delirium caused by fever and dehydration will focus on:
a.
returning to premorbid levels of function.
b.
identifying stressors negatively affecting self.
c.
demonstrating motor responses to noxious stimuli.
d.
exerting control over responses to perceptual distortions.
Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in clients with aids and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer?
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia has highest no. of incidence in clients with aids and clients receiving immunosupressive therapy for cancer.
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is a rare disease in healthy persons, it’s a disease of fungal infection of the lungs .
People with HIV/AIDS counts majorly cases, those taking immune-suppressing medicines, those with cancer, autoimmune or inflammatory disorders, and those with chronic lung disease are also at risk for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia(PCP).
Symptoms include weight loss, night sweats, chills, fatigue, fever, dry/non-productive cough, and shortness of breath. Rarely, the infection may advance to include other visceral organs.
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james d.c. factors influencing food choices, dietary intake, and nutrition-related attitudes among african americans: application of a culturally sensitive model. ethn. health. 2004;9:349–367.
The purpose of this project is to: To study how culture and community influence dietary attitudes, food choices, and food intake of a select group of North Central Florida African Americans.
African Americans need basic nutritional information, such as portion sizes and how to read food labels. The findings also suggest that programs and materials should be developed specifically for churches, neighborhood grocery stores, and local restaurants.
Identify population and community segments to target for education programs, desired components of nutrition education programs, topics of interest, and health promotion channels to reach target audiences; Her six focus groups were conducted with African American men and women. Data were analyzed using the PEN-3 model.
This is a theoretical model that focuses on culture as a primary reason for health behavior and as a key consideration in health promotion and disease prevention programmes. There was a general perception that "healthy eating" meant abandoning some of our cultural heritage and trying to conform to the dominant culture. I do not support Barriers to healthy eating also include lack of urgency, social and cultural symbolism of certain foods, poor taste of “healthy” foods, cost of “healthy” foods, and lack of information.
Population groups that may be motivated to make dietary changes included women, healthy men, young adults, the elderly, and those diagnosed with serious life-threatening illnesses. It was This result suggests that the PEN-3 model is an appropriate framework for assessing how community and culture influence dietary choices in African Americans.
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a breastfeeding primiparous client who gave birth 8 hours ago asks the nurse, "how will i know that my baby is getting enough to eat?" which guideline should the nurse include in the teaching plan as evidence of adequate intake?
The guideline which the nurse should include in the teaching plan as evidence of adequate intake is six to eight wet diapers by the fifth day.
Following delivery, postpartum nurses provide vital physical, emotional, and recovery support for both the new mother and the infant. They may collaborate with a lactation consultant to help with breastfeeding because they are educated to support and educate the new mother and look out for symptoms of postpartum depression.
Your infant will remain in the room with you at this period as long as they are sound and healthy. Skin-to-skin contact with their neonates is encouraged and supported for all patients as soon as possible following delivery. Your nurse will assist you in starting breastfeeding within the first hour of birth if you decide to do so.
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estimated energy requirement (eer) is the average dietary energy intake predicted to maintain energy balance in a healthy adult of a certain age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity consistent with good health.
Estimated Energy Demand (EER) is the average expected to maintain energy balance in healthy, normal-weight individuals with defined age, sex, weight, height, and level of physical activity consistent with health. dietary energy intake.
Estimated Energy Demand (EER):
For children, pregnant and lactating women, EER includes needs related to growth or lactation in proportions consistent with health.
His EER prediction equation, developed by the Institute of Medicine, was published in September 2002 and used to formulate new U.S. dietary guidelines when the revised Food Pyramid (MyPyramid) was released in 2005. it was done.
These equations are based on a large double-labeled water database (considered the gold standard for measuring total energy use).
Total energy expenditure (TEE) is the sum of energy expended for basal metabolic rate, TEF (Thermal Effect of Food), physical activity and thermoregulation, as well as new tissue formation and milk production.
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associations between daily-living physical activity and laboratory-based assessments of motor severity in patients with falls and parkinson's disease
Associations between daily-living physical activity and laboratory-based assessments of motor severity in patients with falls and parkinson's disease gait and balance measurements, as well as indicators of daily physical activity in PD patients.
Parkinson's diseaseMovement-related central nervous system condition that frequently includes tremors.
Parkinson's symptoms are brought on by a decrease in dopamine levels caused by damage to the brain's nerve cells.
One hand tremor is frequently the first sign of Parkinson's disease. Loss of balance, stiffness, and delayed mobility are further symptoms. Parkinson's symptoms can be controlled with medication.
Cause of Parkinson diseaseThe brain region known as the substantia nigra loses nerve cells, which leads to Parkinson's disease. A substance called dopamine is produced by nerve cells in this region of the brain.
Requires TreatmentParkinson's disease typically manifests first as a tremor in one hand. Additional symptoms include a loss of balance, stiffness, and delayed mobility.
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condition in which one is lacking a nutrient, preventing the body from performing necessary processes; can cause a variety of symptoms based on the specific deficiency
Nutrient deficiency is a condition in which one is lacking a nutrient, preventing the body from performing necessary processes; can cause a variety of symptoms based on the specific deficiency.
In the field of health sciences, nutrient deficiency can be described as a condition in which the body of an individual lacks one or more nutrients resulting in poor performance in the functioning of the body.
To prevent nutrient deficiency, it is important for a person to take a healthy, balanced diet so that he has adequate amounts of all the nutrients required by the body.
The symptoms that result as a result of a nutrient deficiency depend on which nutrient is lacking from the body. For example, deficiency in vitamin A can lead to night blindness whereas deficiency in vitamin K can cause hemorrhage.
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a 45-year-old man presents with episodic attacks of headache, recurring bouts of palpitations, anxiety, and sweating. he also gives history of a severe attack 1 week ago while he was having wine and cheese with his wife. on further questioning, he comments that he gets lightheaded when he stands up too rapidly. he comments that his mother had similar problems. on physical examination, his blood pressure is 165/90 mm hg and his heart rate is 80/min. a 24-hour collection of his urine tests positive for vanillylmandelic acid. imaging studies showed bilateral adrenal medullary hyperplasia. further workup showed hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and increased parathyroid hormone levels.
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
The patient displays the pheochromocytoma symptoms and indicators. Pheochromocytoma can cause orthostatic hypotension. He experiences paroxysmal episodes and hypertension. His paroxysms are brought on by the pheochromocytoma's intermittent release of catecholamines. Pheochromocytoma frequently contains urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), a byproduct of catecholamines. Additionally, the patient exhibits elevated parathyroid hormone levels, hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and other laboratory indicators of hyperparathyroidism. The presence of multiple endocrine neoplasia type II (Sipple's syndrome), a rare autosomal dominantly inherited condition, is suggested by the presence of pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism.
Pheochromocytoma, thyroid medullary cancer, and primary hyperparathyroidism or parathyroid hyperplasia are the hallmarks of MEN type II. Additionally, a thyroid medullary cancer screening for this patient is recommended.Learn more about Medullary carcinoma here:
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a client with renal impairment is in need of a diuretic. because of the renal problem, potassium-sparing diuretics are contraindicated but may be used if there is no other option. if they are used at all, what nursing intervention would be most important for this client?
The most important nursing intervention for a client performed with the use of potassium-sparing diuretics is monitoring of serum electrolytes, creatinine, and BUN.
Renal disease, whether it originates in the kidneys directly or as a result of a systemic process, is frequently accompanied with edema, an increase in blood pressure, or both. It is generally recommended for a client in need for diuretic.
For both mild to moderate hypertension and severe hypertension, oral diuretics have gained widespread acceptance as the major treatment agents. Blood potassium levels may also be impacted by diuretics.
A thiazide diuretic may cause your potassium level to drop too low, or hypokalemia, which may result in potentially fatal issues with your heartbeat. You can have too much potassium in your blood if you're taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.
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Once in the bloodstream, orally-administered drugs pass through the __________ before reaching the brain.
Orally administered medications travel through the LIVER en route to the brain after entering the bloodstream.
The majority of medications go through hepatic first-pass metabolism, which occurs in the liver before the medication enters the bloodstream.
Hepatic first-pass metabolism of a medicine allows for the removal of any poisons or hazardous compounds before they enter your bloodstream and influence vital organs like your heart and brain.
Drugs taken orally often pass through the liver and gut wall, which both have a number of inactivating enzymes. The term "pre-systemic" or "first-pass" metabolism refers to this process.
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Which body cavity is acess while adminstering nasal drops by tilting the head of the patient back over the edge of the bed?
The body cavity that is access while administering nasal drops by tilting the head of the patient back over the edge of the bed are Ethmoid sinus and Sphenoid sinus.
What is sinus infection?Sinus infections occur when fluid accumulates in the air-filled pockets in the face (sinuses). This fluid accumulation allows germs to grow. The majority of sinus infections are caused by viruses, but bacteria can also cause sinus infections.
The Ethmoid sinus and Sphenoid sinus are the body cavities that are accessed while administering nasal drops by tilting the patient's head back over the edge of the bed.
Thus, these are accessed in the given situation.
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trends in prevalence of type 1 and type 2 diabetes in children and adolescents in the us, 2001-2017 pubmed
According to data among youths 19 years or younger, 4958 of 3.35 million had type 1 diabetes in 2001, 6672 of 3.46 million had type 1 diabetes in 2009, and 7759 of 3.61 million had type 1 diabetes in 2017; among those aged 10 to 19 years, 588 of 1.73 million had type 2 diabetes.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is the serious health problem and it is a disease in which glucose of the body does not change into the glycogen due to less production of insulin hormone than the requirement.
There are mainly two types of diabetes and these are diabetes type 1 and diabetes type 2. Generally the patients of diabetes are advised to take insulin for proper medication and care.
Therefore, According to data among youths 19 years or younger, 4958 of 3.35 million had type 1 diabetes in 2001, 6672 of 3.46 million had type 1 diabetes in 2009, and 7759 of 3.61 million had type 1 diabetes in 2017; among those aged 10 to 19 years, 588 of 1.73 million had type 2 diabetes.
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a nurse is assessing a client who is immediately post-operative following total hip arthroplasty, which of the following considerations should the nurse take when positioning the client?a. place the client’s heels directly against the bed mattressb. ensure that the client’s hips remain in an abducted position.c. maintain the client in a supine position for the first 24 hr. after surgery.d. flex the client’s hip up to 120° when sitting in a chair
Answer:
B. ensure that the client’s hips remain in an abducted position.
Explanation:
The answer is B, because, according to the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, “The goal of hip precautions is to maintain the hip in as close to a normal position as possible and to prevent it from being moved into a position that would cause dislocation.” This means that the client’s hips should remain in an abducted position.