The numbers in this sequence increase by 40 each time 30, 70, 110, 150. The sequence is continued with the same rule. Which number in the sequence will be closest to 300?

Answer:

6? i am soooo confused

Step-by-step explanation:

When the triangle XYZ is dilated by a scale factor of 4/3, the resulting triangle would have a bigger side lengths

The algebraic rule  is [tex](x,y) \to (\frac 43x,\frac 43y)[/tex]

From the question, we understand that:

The scale factor (k) of the dilation is:

k = 4/3

The dilation rule across the origin is represented as:

[tex](x,y) \to k(x,y)[/tex]

Substitute 4/3 for k

[tex](x,y) \to \frac 43(x,y)[/tex]

Expand

[tex](x,y) \to (\frac 43x,\frac 43y)[/tex]

Hence, the algebraic rule that represents how to find the coordinates of triangle X’Y’Z’ is [tex](x,y) \to (\frac 43x,\frac 43y)[/tex]

Read more about dilation at:

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QUESTION -> {WHICH EQUATION DESCRIBES A LINEAR FUNCTION }.

ANSWER :

B .

y =(1 — 6 ) ×

or.

C .

y = (2) ×

HOPE IT HELPS .

Answer:

She translated each vertex of Figure 1 seven units to the right.

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the Poisson distribution, it is found that the probabilities are given by:

a) 0.1009 = 10.09%.

b) 0.8262 = 82.62%.

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by:

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

Item a:

The mean is of 7 customers for 60 minutes, hence, for 90 minutes = 1.5 x 60 minutes, the mean is given by:

[tex]\mu = 1.5 \times 7 = 10.5[/tex]

The probability of exactly 8 customers is of P(X = 8), hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 8) = \frac{e^{-10.5}10.5^{8}}{(8)!} = 0.1009[/tex]

Item b:

Probability of at least one patient in 15 minutes, hence:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

For 15 minutes, the mean is given by:

[tex]\mu = 0.25 \times 7 = 1.75[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 8) = \frac{e^{-1.75}1.75^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1738[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.1738 = 0.8262[/tex]

More can be learned about the Poisson distribution at https://brainly.com/question/13971530

Answer:

3b + 24

Step-by-step explanation:

3*b=3b

3*8=24

therefore the answer is 3b+24

Hope this helps:)...if not then sorry for wasting your time and may God bless you:)

Answer:

10% of 210 is 21

Step-by-step explanation:

The 1 in 10% is much help. Move the decimal point one place to the right.

I know this is not much, but I hope this helps :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of money Camden would have in his account after 12 years is equal to $2,374.3.

To calculate how much money Camden would have in his account after 12 years, we would use the formula for compound interest.

Mathematically, compound interest is given by this formula:

[tex]A=P(1+r)^t[/tex]

Where:

Given the following data:

Principal = $1400.

Interest rate = 4.5% = 0.045.

Time = 12 year.

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]A=1400(1+0.045)^{12}\\\\A=1400(1.6959)[/tex]

A = $2,374.3.

Read more on interest here: brainly.com/question/24341207

AnswerAnswer:E=1.9

Step-by-step explanation:

ssorry bit i conta speak englessh

Answer:

5 percent of 12 is 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7/12

Step-by-step explanation:

total = 12/12

p(shot) = 5/12

p(not making shot) = 7/12

because

12/12 - 5/12 = 7/12

Hope this helped!

Step-by-step explanation:

the point of extreme value we get a the zero dilution of the first derivative of the function.

h(t) = -0.2t² + 2t

h'(t) = -0.4t + 2

so,

-0.4t + 2 = 0

2 = 0.4t

t = 2/0.4 = 5 seconds

so, after 5 seconds the ball reaches its maximum height.

FYI : that height is then h(5).

-0.2×5² + 2×5 = -5 + 10 = 5 ft

so, all in all, a very weak kick in very low gravity ...

Answer:

Here is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

4^4/(6^6)

Answer:

C is the answers for the question

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me as brainlest

Answer:

44

Step-by-step explanation:

Lunch = 3 appetizers per guest

If there are 22 guests:  22 × 3 = 66 appetizers served

Dinner = 5 appetizers per guest

If there are 22 guests:  22 × 5 = 110 appetizers served

Difference = total dinner appetizers  - total lunch appetizers

                  = 110 - 66

                  = 44

Answer: Below

Step-by-step explanation:

We find the area of the base. Since this is a rectangular pyramid, the base would be the rectangle on the bottom:

3 * 2 = 6

Next we find the height. If we draw the height, we can see that it makes a right triangle with the base and sides, making the Pythagorean theorem valid.

Sqrt(3.4^2 - 1^2) = 3.3

The equation for volume in a pyramid is (base*height)/3.

(3.3 * 6)/3 = 6.6

Our answers are:

1) 6

2) 3.3

3) 6.6

Answer:

23 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value of -14 is fourteen.

The absolute value of 23 is twenty-three

23>14

+ 12 - 4 + 3 - 15

= 12 + 3 - 4 - 15

=     15   -   19

= - 4

Answer:

He has -4 points. if I'm not mistaken

Step-by-step explanation:

12 - 4 + 3 - 15 = -4

I apologize if I am incorrect

Step-by-step explanation:

BC / EC = 21/14 = 3/2.

AC / CD = 27/18 = 3/2.

Angle ACB and ECD are congruent because they are vertical angles.

This means that triangle ABC is similar to triangle DEC by SAS.

Answer:

$22.50

Step-by-step explanation:

105/6= 17.5 each

17.5+5= 22.5

The side length of the cube is 13 feet.

We have given that

Lateral area of a cube = 676 square feet

We have to determine the side length of the cube

So here we use the formula of the lateral surface area of the cube.

[tex]L=4side^2[/tex]

L=676,and side =a

[tex]676=4a^2[/tex]

divide both side by 4

[tex]\frac{676}{4}=a^2[/tex]

[tex]169=a^2[/tex]

Taking square root on both side of equation we will get

[tex]13=a[/tex]

Therefore, Side length of the cube is 13 feet.

To learn more about the lateral area visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1297098

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=6

Step-by-step explanation:

24÷4=6

4×6=24

Hope it helps :))

Answer:

12 cans

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the outside of the tank:

radio = half diameter = 4.5 ft.

base: [tex]A_{b} =\pi r^{2} =\pi (4.5)^{2} =20.25\pi[/tex]

Top: = base [tex]=20.25\pi[/tex]

cylinder: [tex]2\pi rh=2\pi (4.5)(16)=144\pi[/tex]

Total area to paint: [tex]144\pi +2(20.25\pi) =184.5\pi =579.6sq.ft.[/tex]

Number of cans of paint:

[tex]c=\frac{579.6}{50} =11.59=12[/tex]

Hope this helps

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

It says to find the value at x=2. This is going to be a vertical line that passes through the point (2,0). This vertical line intersects the function at (2,-3) therefore the value of the function at 2, is -3.

I hope this helps!

Please mark brainliest!!

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

16 1/4 divided 3 1/4

40 min = 40/60 hr = 2/3 hr

Distance = x km

t=distance/speed

x/200+x/120=2/3

multiply by 6oo

3x+5x=400

8x=400

x = 400/8=50km

The journey is for 50km


pls giive brainliest\

Answer:

base: 1/4 * 12^2 * √3 = 36√3

each face: 1/2 * 12 * 8 = 48

Now finish it off

Step-by-step explanations:

[tex]~~~~~~ \textit{Continuously Compounding Interest Earned Amount} \\\\ A=Pe^{rt}\qquad \begin{cases} A=\textit{accumulated amount}\\ P=\textit{original amount deposited}\dotfill & \$81200\\ r=rate\to 3.6\%\to \frac{3.6}{100}\dotfill &0.036\\ t=years\dotfill &13 \end{cases} \\\\\\ A=81200e^{0.036\cdot 13}\implies A=81200e^{0.468}\implies A\approx 129659.95[/tex]

Answer: 882pi square inches

Step-by-step explanation: