The first of Piaget's stages, during which infants construct an understanding of the world by coordinating sensory experiences with physical, motoric actions, is known as the sensorimotor stage.
There are four stages of Piaget's theory which are sensorimotor stage in infants aged 0-2 years, preoperational stage for children aged 2- 7 years, concrete operational stage for children aged 7- 11 years and formal operational stage for children aged over 11 until adulthood.
The sensorimotor stage is which infants discover relationships between their bodies and the environment.
The first Piaget's stage is when toddlers acquire knowledge through sensory experiences and manipulating objects. Basic reflexes, senses, motor responses are the child's experience during this stage. This stage has six substages.
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Two out of three people who have heart attacks experience warning signs up to a few weeks beforehand. True or false
This statement is true.
A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is insufficient blood supply to part of the heart muscle.The more time passes without treatment to improve blood flow, the greater the damage to the heart muscle.The leading cause of heart attacks is coronary artery disease (CAD). Coronary spasm, a severe, rapid contraction, is a less common cause and can block blood flow to the heart muscle.Chest pain or discomfort is one of the main symptoms of a heart attack. Most heart attacks are characterized by left or central chest pain that lasts longer than a few minutes or subsides before recurring. Painful pressure, pressure, or fullness may be experienced as complaints.Therefore, the statement is true.
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Which characteristics of a second degree thermal burn would the nurse expect to find during a patients physical assessment?
The characteristics of a second degree thermal burn which the nurse would expect to find during a patients physical assessment include a bright red burned area with moist, red, shiny vesicles and blister formation.
Second-degree thermal burns are conjointly referred to as “partial-thickness burns.” They have an effect on the highest layer of your skin and therefore the next layer below it. This sort of burn usually causes your skin to blister. Over time, blisters will pop open, giving your skin a wet or wet look. Some second-degree burns will leave scars.
To treat this burn, one should immerse in cool water for ten or quarter-hour, use compresses if running water is not out there, don't apply ice as It will lower vital sign and cause more pain and injury, and don't break blisters or apply butter or ointments, which may cause infection.
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A nurse is caring for a client with eczema. which medication would be prescribed when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?
The best medication among the answer choice given above which would to prescribe for a patient when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder is Chlorpheniramine.
Option b is the correct answer choice.
No doubt, the general and best medication which should be given to patients whose skin health condition is as a result of allergic reactions or allergies is Chlorpheniramine. When this is administered for such patient, it fight the loosed defense mechanisms causing such allergic effect.
What is meant by skin disorder ?Skin disorder refers to any skin disease or condition which affect the normal physiology functioning or nature of the skin.
That being said, skin disorder or diseases are usually caused by pathogenic microorganisms. Once they invade the body system by whatever means they have, they cause certain health conditions on the skin which includes the following:
EczemaRingwormCancer of the skinRashes and so on and so forth.So therefore, the best medication among the answer choice given above which would to prescribe for a patient when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder is Chlorpheniramine.
Option b is the correct answer choice.
Complete question:
A nurse is caring for a client with eczema. Which medication would be prescribed when an allergy is a factor causing the skin disorder?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Bupivacaine
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You come upon a patient who is unresponsive and is not breathing. you had heard from her nurse that she had discussed a do not resuscitate (dnr) order with her physician. you should?
Start resuscitation procedures right away and call a code.
Resuscitation efforts should be started when there is any uncertainty about a do not resuscitate (DNR) order or when written directions are absent. The majority of the time, formal or informal orders like "code gray" or "slow code" are utilized, which ignore the patient's rights.Depending on the country, a do-not-resuscitate (DNR), Do Not Attempt Resuscitation (DNAR), Do Not Attempt Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (DNACPR), no code, or allow natural death order is a medical directive that states that cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should not be administered if a person's heart stops beating. These choices, as well as the pertinent documentation, can occasionally include choices for additional vital or life-sustaining medical measures. DNR orders have different legal standing and procedures depending on the country.Therefore, start resuscitation procedures should be started right away.
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[ Brainliest ]
Your heart rate or pulse should be within your TTZ for at least 20 minutes of exercise if you want to improve your cardiovascular health.
O True
O False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
This is what I think
[ Brainliest ]
Why do you need to know your TTZ when planning a cardio workout?
A. TTZ is your time spent exercising.
B. TTZ is your heart rate when exercising that shows your effort level, or intensity,
is aerobic.
C. You don't need TTZ when planning a cardio workout.
D. You need to be below or above your TTZ for cardio exercise.
Answer:
B. TTZ is your heart rate when exercising that shows your effort level, or intensity, is aerobic.
This is what I think
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your first action should be to?
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire and your first action should be to shut off the fuel supply.
A fuel line is a hose or pipe accustomed transfer fuel from one purpose in an object to a different. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency defines a fuel line as "all hoses or tube designed to contain liquid fuel or fuel vapor.
Fire result as of applying enough heat to a fuel supply, once you have got a full ton of chemical substance around. Because the atoms within the fuel heat up, they begin to vibrate until they break away of the bonds holding them along and are discharged as volatile gases. These gases react with chemical element within the encompassing atmosphere
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Kimiko witnessed the death of a good friend when she was 10 years old. it is likely that she?
Kimiko is likely to remembered at least some portion of this memory.
What do mean by memory?Memory is seen as the act or the process of having in information from the environment that is around us, and then processing it, as well as it for later remembering of that information.
Note that in the case above, she is said to be young and the tendency to remember it all will wear off with time.
Therefore, Kimiko is likely to remembered at least some portion of this memory.
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Which explains why it is important to have the correct etiology for a nursing diagnosis?
The etiology directs nursing care and that is why it is important to have the correct etiology for a nursing diagnosis.
The etiology directs nursing interventions. If the incorrect etiology is given, the treatment would not be applicable for the consumer. the alternative statements are true but not a reason for the importance of the etiology being correct.
A nursing diagnosis is “a clinical judgment regarding individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems/life processes.
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A nurse administers anticholinergics to a client as a postoperative medication. what condition does this medication help to prevent?
Anticholinergics administered by the nurse as postoperative medication, help to prevent Laryngospasm.
Atropine and glycopyrrolate, two anticholinergics are used to lessen pulmonary and oral secretions and avoid laryngospasm. Anticholinergic medicines have little effect on cardiovascular problems, motion sickness, or shock. (less)
A temporary and reversible vocal cord spasm known as laryngospasm makes it difficult to breathe or talk for a short period of time.
The larynx, the voice box at the top of the windpipe (trachea), has two fibrous bands known as the vocal cords.
What Brings About Laryngospasm?Laryngospasms can be caused by a variety of factors, including GERD, asthma, allergies, exercise, irritants (smoke, dust, fumes), stress, and anxiety.
How may a laryngospasm be stopped?A few straightforward methods could reduce the spasm:
After holding your breath for five seconds, take a calm, nasal breath. With your lips pursed, exhale.
Divide a straw in half. When under attack, cover the straw with your lips and take all of your breaths via it, not your nose.
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What is the most accurate assessment if the client believes that the healthcare providers are fbi agents and that there are cameras everywhere monitoring the client?
The Delusions evaluation is the most appropriate one if the client thinks that the medical professionals are FBI agents and that his apartment is equipped with cameras to watch his every move.
It is crucial to emphasize the value of assessment in residential care settings. It serves as the philosophical basis for person-centered care, a philosophy that gives patients more autonomy and responsibility for their own health and way of life.
Every client receiving residential care needs to undergo a thorough evaluation to determine their unique needs, preferences, and strengths. An interdisciplinary team conducts the examination, which examines different facets of the subjects' lives, including their physical, spiritual, cognitive, social, mental, and emotional well-being.
Decisions based on client assessments have an impact on care coordination, resource allocation, and other services.
The assessment procedure identifies the most suitable and efficient method of customer support. Assessment often begins soon after admission, however, it might take longer or shorter depending on the organization and staffing levels.
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Compare and contrast the potential relationship between poor health behaviors and good health behaviors
Good health behavior includes the activities performed by the person to stay healthy whereas poor health behavior includes ignoring those activities which are god for health and doing those which affect our body and are prone to illness.
Health behaviors are actions individuals take that have an effect on their health. They embody actions that lead to improved health, like intake well and being physically active, and actions that increase one's risk of illness, like smoking, excessive alcohol intake, and risky sensual behavior.
Smoking, excessive alcohol use, low levels of physical activity and poor diet are the risk factors for pathological state of ill health and premature mortality; these poor health behaviors usually cluster.
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In 2011, one phase of the patient protection and affordable care act (ppaca) came into effect allowing parents to keep children on their family health insurance until the age of _____.
In 2011, one phase of the patient protection and affordable care act (ppaca) came into effect allowing parents to keep children on their family health insurance until the age of 26.
What is patient protection and affordable care act?
The three main goals of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) are to: (1) reform the private insurance market, particularly for individuals and small-group buyers; (2) expand Medicaid to working poor people with incomes up to 133% of the federal poverty level; and (3) alter the way that medical decisions are made.
The Affordable Care Act mandates that insurers and plans that provide coverage for dependent children do so up until the adult kid turns 26. After graduating from college, many parents and their kids no longer have to worry about losing their health care.
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Asking yourself, “Who am I now?” is one way to help determine career plans that will fit your interests. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
At which site would the nurse obtain a sterile urinalysis from a client with an indwelling catheter?
The site at which nurse would obtain a sterile urinalysis from a client with an indwelling catheter will be by withdrawing several milliliters of urine from the port on the collection tubing, using a syringe and needle.
An indwelling urinary catheter is implanted, however it remains in place unlike an intermittent catheter. The catheter is secured in the bladder with the help of a water-filled balloon. Foley catheters are a common name for these catheters.
When a client with an indwelling catheter has to have a urine sample taken, the sample should be taken from the catheter itself using the designated specimen port. The urine sample from the drainage bag may not be fresh, which might lead to an incorrect analysis.
A client's catheter would not be taken out just to collect a urine sample.
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Which goal would the nurse expect client receiving treatment for bacterial cystitis to achieve before their discharge from teh hospital?
The goal that the nurse would expect clients receiving treatment for bacterial cystitis to achieve before their discharge from the hospital would be to get rid of the patient's clinical symptoms while keeping their kidney function intact.
This is further explained below.
What is bacterial cystitis?Generally, Bacterial cystitis is an infection of the bladder that may be caused by bacteria that have entered the urethra or the bladder.
This infection can also be caused by bacteria that have invaded the urethra.
An imbalance in the bacteria that are normally present in and flourish inside your body is another factor that contributes to this condition.
The disease that develops as a consequence of the infection is called cystitis, which is another name for inflammation of the bladder.
Treatment for a bladder infection is necessary and should not be put off for any length of time.
In conclusion, Get rid of the patient's clinical symptoms while keeping their kidney function intact.
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what are the health and medical and nutrition sciences and how do they relate to fitness, health, and wellness?
health, medical and nutrition science are defined below:
What is science?
Science is an intellectual and practical endeavor that includes the methodical investigation of the composition and behavior of the physical and natural world via experimentation and observation.
The sciences whose primary research interests are in the areas of health or health care are known as health sciences.
The science of medicine is the study of how the human body functions. It often begins with fundamental biology before being separated into subfields of expertise.
The study of food, nutrients, and other dietary ingredients, their consumption and biochemical processing, their link to health and illness, and the application of this knowledge to policy and programs is known as nutritional sciences.
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A clinic client's primary complaint is earache (otalgia). what question should the nurse include in the health interview?
The question nurse should include in health interview is "Have you been swimming lately?"
What is health interview?
The most adaptable diagnostic and therapeutic tool available to practicing doctors is the medical interview or health interview. However, one of the most challenging clinical skills to learn is interviewing. Both mental and emotional pressures are placed on the doctor. The interpersonal abilities required to connect with the patient and encourage conversation must be matched with the analytical capabilities of diagnostic thinking.
As mentioned in question, the clinic client's primary complaint is earache (otalgia). the question nurse should include in the health interview would be "Have you been swimming lately?".
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Rubella has the greatest potential for damage when it is contracted during which period of a pregnancy?
When a mother contracts the rubella virus early in her pregnancy, particularly in the first 12 weeks, the damage it causes is the worst (first trimester).
How does pregnancy suffer from rubella?When rubella strikes a pregnant woman, especially in the first trimester, the virus has the potential to kill the fetus or leave it with severe birth abnormalities. The most typical cause of congenital deafness is rubella during pregnancy. It is better to receive rubella protection before to becoming pregnant.
What types of birth abnormalities can rubella lead to?In kids whose mothers had rubella immediately before or at the start of pregnancy, complications affect 85 out of 100. Deafness, cataracts, abnormalities of the heart, brain, and spleen damage are only a few of the complications.
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A client with mild fluid volume excess is prescribed a diuretic that blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. which diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
B) HydroDiuril is the diuretic anticipated by the nurse to administer for this client in this condition.
What conditions does HydroDiuril treat?High blood pressure is treated with this drug. Bringing down high blood pressure reduces the risk of heart attacks, kidney issues, and strokes.
What are the side effects of taking hydrochlorothiazide?Hydrochlorothiazide is a type of medication known as a diuretic, or “water pill,” and it works by increasing the amount of urine you produce.
Negative effectsStomach, leg, or back discomfort.
Tarry, dark stools.
Blistering, skin peeling, or skin loosening
Ballooning.
Blood in the stools or urine.
Fingernails and lips both blue.
Or tightness in the chest.
Clay-colored stools.
How long does Hydrodiuril take to start working?The effects of hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) last up to 12 hours and begin to take effect about 2 hours after you take it.
Water pills like hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) cause frequent urination.
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Complete question:
A client with mild fluid volume excess is prescribed a diuretic that blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. Which diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
A. Demadex
B. HydroDiuril
C. Lasix
D. Bumex
What should be the nurses primary goal during the perinteraction phase of the nurse-client relationship?
The nurse's primary goal in the preinteraction phase should be to
explore self-perceptions.
What does self-perception mean?A theory of attitude formation called the self-perception theory (SPT) was created by psychologist Daryl Bem. It states that people form their attitudes by analyzing their own behavior and drawing conclusions about what attitudes must have led to it (when there is no previous attitude due to lack of experience, etc. and the emotional response is ambiguous). The theory goes against conventional wisdom, which holds that attitudes drive behavior. The theory also contends that people create attitudes independently of their internal cognitive and emotional states. The individual attempts to rationally interpret their own overt behaviors as well as those of others.To learn more about Self perception, refer
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The nurse has placed a urinal between the legs of a client and instructed him to place himself onto the urinal. after covering the client with the bed linens, what would be the nurse's next action?
After covering the patient with bed linens, the nurse's next action would be:
Place the call bell and toilet paper near the patient and tell him to call when he's finished.
The nurse would also make certain that the bed was in the lowest position possible and would leave the patient if it was safe to do so. If possible, leave the patient alone to promote self-esteem and respect for privacy.
Use of URINAL:
The nurse should insist that the bedridden patient urinate into a urinal (a plastic or metal receptacle for pee) while still in bed. Nurses should give bedpans to female patients who are bedridden so they can collect their urine.
Procedure:
-Wash your hands completely.
-Prevent urine from getting on the patient's body or the bed.
-Stay by the helpless patient and, if necessary, seek aid from family members.
-Once the patient has peed, remove the urinal.
-In the sluice chamber, measure and empty the urine.
After Care:
-Help the patient wash their hands and perineum.
-Put the patient's body in the appropriate alignment.
-If needed, replace the bedding.
-Once the items have been cleaned, replace them.
-hand washing
-Record the action in the nurse's log and the quantity on the intake output chart.
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Children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of ________ as their preferred way of dealing with others.
Children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of aggression as their preferred way of dealing with others.
Does aggressive behavior have an evolutionary basis?it has been proposed that aggressive behavior may have an evolutionary basis as a mechanism of defense in our past ancestors, but more conclusive evidence is required to confirm it.
In conclusion, children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of aggression as their preferred way of dealing with others.
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A study conducted in 1961 found that _________ doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
A study conducted in 1961 found that most of the doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
According to a 1961 survey, most doctors exhibited a significant propensity to keep knowledge to themselves. At that time, none of the physicians polled indicated that they had a practice of disclosing a life-threatening diagnosis to every patient.The majority of respondents (59.9-91.5%) said they would be willing to answer these questions honestly. However, when asked specific questions about euthanasia, more than a third of doctors refused to respond honestly. These outcomes can be compared to UK data. The majority of respondents preferred the use of anonymous written responses, and complete anonymity was the promise that was most likely to inspire honest responses. Survey recommendations from regulatory agencies didn't provide as much comfort to respondents. The deterring effect of medical and legal repercussions and social stigma were among the topics covered in the open remarks.Therefore, most of the doctors had a strong tendency to withhold information.
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A parent is concerned because the toddler refuses to share. what is the nurse's best response to the parent regarding this concern?
The nurse should educate the parent saying that this is a normal toddler behavior and playing with other children will help him socialize and share his things.
What is Socialization?The procedure of internalizing societal norms and ideology is known as socialization in sociology. Learning and teaching are both a part of socialization, making it "the mechanism through which cultural and social continuation are attained."
Socialization and developmental psychology are closely related. For survival and to learn their culture, humans need social experiences.
In essence, socialization refers to the entire process that learning throughout life and has a significant impact on both children's and adults' behavior, beliefs, and actions.
In terms of the society in which it takes place, socialization may provide beneficial results that are frequently referred to as "moral." The consensus of the society shapes individual opinions, which typically lean towards what the that society considers to be "normal" or "acceptable."
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A health insurance plan pays for medical care only after the insured has first paid $1,000 out of pocket on an annual basis. the $1,000 annual cost is called?
A health insurance plan pays for medical care only after the insured has first paid $1,000 out of pocket on an annual basis and the $1,000 annual cost is called deductible.
Health insurance is a style of insurance that covers medical expenses that arise due to health problems. These expenses may well be associated with hospitalization prices, value of medicines or doctor consultation fees.
A health insurance plan offers comprehensive medical coverage against hospitalization charges, pre-hospitalization charges, post-hospitalization charges, machine expenses, etc. in addition, it offers compensation just in case of loss of financial gain as a results of associate accident. It does not supply any add-on cover.
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Soap suds enemas are used to eliminate barium residue in the colon. True or false
False. The Soap suds enemas are used in eliminating barium residue that is present in the colon.
What are the benefits of soap suds enemas?A soap suds enema is one kind of enema. To treat fecal impaction or constipation, detergent is added to water.
You can administer over-the-counter enemas in your house. In a hospital setting, your doctor may also perform an enema.
A soap suds enema (SSE) is a hypertonic solution that delivers a large-volume, detergent-based mucosal irritation to stimulate defecation.
To identify structural or functional issues with the large intestine, including the rectum, a barium enema may be used.
Ulcerative colitis is just one example of these anomalies. Inflammation and ulcers in the large intestine.
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The nurse is planning care for a client with a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. what assessment finding would cause the nurse the most concern?
That assessment finding would be shortness of breath after walking up five stairs.
What is health assessment?
Patients are asked a series of questions regarding their personal behaviors, risks, life-changing experiences, health goals and priorities, and general health in order to complete a health assessment.
In primary care practices, health assessments are typically utilized as organized screening and evaluation tools to assist the patient and the healthcare team in creating a care plan. The health care team can better grasp the demands of its patient group as a whole with the aid of information from health assessments. The duration and breadth of health exams might vary. They can be finished on paper or a computer, and they can be done in-person or online. Patients of all ages, including children and adolescents, may be subject to health assessment questions.
Here, that nurse is planning care for a client with a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. so, the assessment finding would cause the nurse the most concern would be shortness of breath after walking up five stairs.
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Information or knowledge of a fact imputed by law to a person because the person could have discovered the fact by proper diligence and inquiry is known as what?
It is known ar constructive notice.
The nurse is planning care for a client with an hgb of 7.5 g/dl and a hct of 21.5 g/dl. which should the nurse include in the plan of care?
An client with 7.5g/dl of hgb indicates low hemoglobin level in body. An hct is a test which used to measure the amount of red blood cells in body. A normal hct in body should be in range of 40 to 50 %.
Anemia:A decrease in hemoglobin level in body leads to anemia. If the hemoglobin level decreases for short time is called acute anemia. If hemoglobin decreases for long time is called chronic anemia.
Hgb level in body indicates the hemoglobin level in body. The normal hemoglobin level in body in males in 14 g/dl and in females it is 12 g/dl. A 7.5 g/dl indicates that person is suffering from anemia.
A nurse should tell the patient to eat iron rich food, Sleep properly, Folic acid tablets should also given to the patient.
Some iron rich food are:
SpinachBeetrootDatesJaggeryFruits.Therefore, An client with 7.5g/dl of hgb indicates low hemoglobin level in body. An hct is a test which used to measure the amount of red blood cells in body. A normal hct in body should be in range of 40 to 50 %.
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