Pls hlp<3 Given ΔBCD ~ ΔEFG. Find the length of BC.

Answer:

58

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

58

Step-by-step explanation:

13 plus 45 is 58

you add them.

do you understand?

Answer: These are non- consistent and can be solved. The signs of the y terms are the opposite.

Step-by-step explanation: If the signs are the same, and all the terms of one equation are multiples of the other, they are identies, with infinite solutions. We can solve this system by multiplying the first equation by 2, adding the equations to cancel the y terms, and solve for x.

2(3x+y=5) becomes

6x +2y= 10 Add it to the other equation

6x -2y= 10 We are left with

12x = 20 Solve for x

x = 5/3 Substitute for x and solve for y.

3(5/3) + y = 5

5 + y = 5. Subtract 5 from both sides.

y = 0

The solution to this system is (5/3 , 0)

Answer:

a. Probability is 50%

b. Picking either a heart or spade is mutually exclusive

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 52 cards in a deck of cards.

Of those 52, 13 are hearts and 13 are spades.

The probability of picking wither of them is therefore:

= (13 + 13) / 52

= 26/52

= 50%

Mutually exclusive events are those that cannot occur at the same time. You can either pick a heart or you can pick a spade. You cannot pick both at the same time so these are mutually exclusive.

Given that ΔPQR and ΔSTU are similar triangles, m∠Q = 64°.

Thus:

ΔPQR and ΔSTU are similar because:

PQ/ST = PR/SU = QR/TU = 3.5

Therefore,

m∠Q = 180 - 70 - 46

m∠Q = 64°

Thus, given that ΔPQR and ΔSTU are similar triangles, m∠Q = 64°.

Learn more about similar triangles on:

https://brainly.com/question/2644832

The answer is 65

Step-by-step explanation:

all you had to do was divide

Answer:

the anser is 22.10

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to round to the nearest ten. here is a tip 4 or down round down 5 or up round up now you are good to go! and also to find me if you need help

Answer:

One Serving - 1/4 teaspoon

240 Serving - 60 teaspoon

plz mark as brainliest

sorry i don't know

sorry

sorry

Answer:

Sample size is [tex]n=423[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

Margin of error [tex]=4[/tex]%

Confidence level [tex]=90[/tex]%

Suppose, sample proportion[tex]=0.5[/tex]

        i.e. [tex]\hat{P}=0.5[/tex]

We know that,

     Margin of error [tex]=2^*\sqrt{\frac{\hat{p}(1-\hat{p})}{n} }[/tex]

 ∴ [tex]1.64\sqrt{\frac{0.5(0.5)}{n} } \leq 4\%[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow 1.64\sqrt{\frac{0.25}{n} } \leq 0.04[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \frac{0.5}{\sqrt{n} } \leq \frac{0.04}{1.64}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \frac{0.5}{\sqrt{n} } \leq 0.0243[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \sqrt{n}\geq \frac{0.5}{0.0243}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \sqrt{n}\geq 20.57[/tex]

squaring on both side,

∴ [tex]n=423.1249[/tex]

Hence, the sample size is,

   [tex]n=423[/tex]

Hence, the correct option is [tex](b).[/tex]

Answer:

423

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  2.  G  10.72 units

  3.  B  3.6, 6, 4.8

Step-by-step explanation:

2. The Pythagorean theorem tells you the square of the hypotenuse is the sum of the squares of the sides.

  14^2 = 9^2 + CB^2

  196 = 81 + CB^2 . . . . find the square values

  115 = CB^2 . . . . . . . . subtract 81

  √115 = CB ≈ 10.72 . . . . . matches G

__

3. You know that lengths 3, 4, 5 form a right triangle. This is a special triple for several reasons. One of them is that it is the smallest integer Pythagorean triple. Another is that it is the only Pythagorean triple that is an arithmetic sequence (has constant differences between lengths).

You can use this as a reference to look at the choices offered.

  A. The lengths 3.2, 4.1 and 5.0 have constant differences of 0.9. The shortest length is not 3 times this value, so this is not a right triangle.

  B. The lengths 3.6, 4.8, 6 have constant differences of 1.2. These numbers are 3, 4, and 5 times that difference, so these segments will form a right triangle.

  C, D. The longest length is an integer. The sums of the squares of the decimal values will not be integers, so these are not right triangles.

  4.5^2 +6.7^2 = 65.14  not 8^2

  5.2^2 +8.5^2 = 99.29  not 10^2

Answer:  28.765957 km/hour

This value is approximate. Round it however you need to.

==============================================

Explanation:

Let's convert 75 minutes to hours.

75 min = (75 min)*(1 hr/60 min) = (75/60) hr = 1.25 hr

So Jaden's train takes 1.25 hours to travel 130 km. Her train's speed is

speed = distance/time

speed = (130 km)/(1.25 hrs)

speed = (130/1.25) km per hour

speed = 104 km per hour

Let A = 104, so we can use it later.

------------------------------------

Dani's train leaves at 15:15 and arrives at 18:30. We need to calculate the duration of elapsed time here.

Overall, the length of time from 15:15 to 18:30 is 0.75+2+0.5 = 3.25 hours.

Dani's train travels 312 km in 3.25 hours.

That train's speed is...

speed = distance/time

speed = (312 km)/(3.25 hours)

speed = (312/2.35) km per hour

speed = 132.765957 km per hour, approximately

Let B = 132.765957 so we can use it later.

------------------------------------

Lastly, we subtract the values of A and B to get the final answer

C = difference in train speeds.

C = B - A

C = 132.765957 - 104

C = 28.765957 km/hour

This value is approximate. This says that Dani's train is approximately 28.765957 km/hour faster compared to Jaden's train.

The two angles are supplementary angles and when added together equal 180 degrees.

3x -12 + x+2 = 180

Simplify:

4x -10 = 180

Add 10 to both sides

4x = 190

Divide both sides by 4

X = 190/4

X = 47.5

Answer:

1 hour

Step-by-step explanation:

300/6= 50

in one hour he drives 50 miles

so the answer is 1 hour

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hope i helped

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is in the picture.

Answer:an icosceles triangle with pq qr

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

uh 351,000? im not sure..

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: $49.18

Step-by-step explanation:

$98.35 divided by 2 equals 49.175 if rounded it is $49.18

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

the y-intercept is when x=0, so, if x was 0, y is1/3

plz brainliestt

Answer:

It is 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps ^^

Answer:

-4.4c+1.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 43 because 600/14 = 42.8571429 rounded to the nearest whole number is 43.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

huh? im confused on the question

Step-by-step explanation:

!!

Answer: 3.76

Step-by-step explanation:

trust

Answer:

it is not clear .... please add the question and send the link of the question

Answer:

$712.79

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you have to keep, change, flip and it is positive because they both are negative

Can you mark me brainliest

Answer:

angle A=140

angle B=105

angle C=60

angle A=140

angle B=105

angle C=60

Step-by-step explanation:

PENN

[tex]\frac{x}{y}[/tex]Answer:

Six would be your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

2y-9= y-2

-y        -Y

y-9=-2

y=-2+9

y=6

Answer:

She buys 2/8 more pound of granola than banana chips

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

.3988 .

Step-by-step explanation:

We shall use Binomial distribution formula in the problem .

n = 103

The probability that a passenger will not miss the flight and show up = .97

The probability that a passenger will miss the flight = .03

n = 103 ,

probability of showing up  101 , 102 and 103 passengers so that at least 1 passenger will return or bump .

= 103C₁₀₁ .97¹⁰¹ .03² + 103C₁₀₂ .97¹⁰² .03+ 103C₁₀₃ .97¹⁰³

103 x 102 /2  .97¹⁰¹ .03² + 103  .97¹⁰² .03 + .97¹⁰³

= 5253 x .046 x .0009 + 103 x .00134 + .0434

= .2174 + .1380 + .0434

= .3988 .

The probability that the airline will have to bump at least one passenger is; 0.3988

Probability that the travelers did not show up for the flight is; q = 3% = 0.03

Probability that they will show up for the flight is; p = 97% = 0.97

P(X = r) = nCr × p^(r) × q^(n - r)

Thus, the probability that the airline will have to bump at least one passenger is;

(103C₁₀₁ × 0.97¹⁰¹ × 0.03²) + (103C₁₀₂ × 97¹⁰² × 0.03) + (103C₁₀₃ × 0.97¹⁰³ × 0.03⁰)

>> 0.2174 + 0.1380 + 0.0434

>> 0.3988

Read more on binomial probability at; https://brainly.com/question/15246027

Answer:

379.94 square inches, or 379.94 in².

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a circle is π r². The diameter of the circle is listed as 22 inches, and the radius, or "r", is equal to half of the diameter. So, half of 22 is 11.

Since the formula says r², 11 needs to be squared, or multiplied once by itself.  11 x 11 = 121, so the last part of the equation is to multiply 121 by π. Because pi is an irrational number that never ends, it is commonly accepted to use 3.14, or the first three digits of pi, as the value of pi in an equation.

With that, 121 x 3.14 = 379.94, giving a final answer of 379.94 in².

Let me know if I need to change or clarify anything. I hope this helps! :D

Answer:

19.6ft2

Step-by-step explanation: