One of each pair of chromosomes comes from each

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

One of each pair of chromosomes comes from each parent.

Explanation:

Chromosomes are any of several threadlike bodies, consisting of chromatin, that carry the genes in a linear order: the human species has 23 pairs, designated 1 to 22 in order of decreasing size and X and Y for the female and male sex chromosomes respectively.

In a diploid organism (like humans) a chromosome pair is 2 chromosomes. Although we say there are two “copies” of a chromosome, they are non-identical. Each comes from a different parent (father and mother.) These come from the gametes (which are haploid, having half the number of chromosomes). Those chromosomes are not identical to the parents, but consist of a blending of the grandparent's genetic material.


Related Questions

In artificial selection, what selects traits that are beneficial?​

Answers

In artificial selection, the breeder selects traits that are beneficial.

What is artificial selection?

Artificial selection, also known as selective breeding, is the process by which humans intentionally select and breed plants or animals for certain desirable traits or characteristics.

This process involves choosing individuals with the desired traits and then mating them in order to produce offspring with those traits. Over time, repeated selection and breeding can lead to the development of new varieties or breeds with specific traits that are useful or desirable for humans.

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In which layer of the GI tract can an intersection of branching nerves be found?
(1 point)
serosa
muscalaris
submucosa
mucosa

Answers

Answer:

The intersection of branching nerves can be found in the submucosa layer of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The submucosa is a layer of connective tissue that contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerve fibers. The nerves in the submucosa branch out and form a network called the submucosal plexus or Meissner's plexus. This plexus controls the secretions of the glands in the mucosa and the contractions of the muscularis mucosae.

Answer:

Muscularis

Explanation:

Took the test and got it wrong with the answer "mucosa", the correct answer is "Muscalaris"

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Question 2-9
Several groups of students were given a 2 gram (g) cube of iron and a 4 g cube of iron They examined three characteristic physical properties of each cube density,
magnetism, and electrical conductivity Which statement describes the most likely findings of the students?
The cubes had identical properties because the amount of matter would not change these physical properties
The 2 g cube had smaller values for the physical properties because the matter was squeezed together in a smaller space
The demity and ability to conduct electricity remained the same but was twice as magnetic because the cube was twices large
The 4 g cube had a greater density, was more magnetic, and was a stronger conductor of electricity because it occupied a larger space

Answers

The cubes had identical properties because the amount of matter would not change these physical properties

Does physical properties change with mass of the sample?

In general, the physical properties of a material do not change with the mass of the sample.

Physical properties such as density, melting point, boiling point, specific heat capacity, and thermal conductivity are intrinsic properties of a material that are determined by its chemical composition and molecular structure. These properties are not dependent on the amount or size of the sample.

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Describe the factors that affect saturation of water and the relative humidity in air

Answers

The saturation of water and relative humidity in the air is affected by several factors, including temperature, pressure, and the amount of water vapor in the air.

Temperature plays a significant role in determining the saturation of water and relative humidity in the air. As the temperature of air increases, it can hold more water vapor, which means that the relative humidity of the air decreases. Conversely, as the temperature of the air decreases, it can hold less water vapor, which means that the relative humidity increases.

Pressure is another factor that can affect the saturation of water and relative humidity in the air. As air pressure increases, the amount of water vapor that air can hold also increases. Conversely, as air pressure decreases, the amount of water vapor that air can hold decreases, which means that the relative humidity increases.

The amount of water vapor in the air is also a critical factor in determining the saturation of water and relative humidity. As the amount of water vapor in the air increases, the relative humidity also increases, and the air becomes closer to saturation. When the amount of water vapor in the air reaches its maximum capacity, the air becomes saturated, and the relative humidity is at 100%. At this point, any additional water vapor in the air will result in condensation or precipitation.

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Write the function of the following structures
1crotid artery
2, hepatic artery
3,masentric artery
4, masentric vein
5,renal artery
6,renal vein
7, subclavian vein
8, subclavian artery

Answers

1.The carotid artery supplies oxygenated blood to the head and neck.

2. The hepatic artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver.

3. The masentric artery supplies oxygenated blood to the stomach.

What is blood ?

Blood is a specialized body fluid that has many essential functions in the body. It is composed of cells suspended in a liquid matrix known as plasma. Blood is responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and other substances throughout the body, as well as providing immunity against infection and disease.

4. The masentric vein carries deoxygenated blood from the stomach.5. The renal artery supplies oxygenated blood to the kidneys.6. The renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys.7. The subclavian vein carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body.8. The subclavian artery supplies oxygenated blood to the upper body.

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What is the MOST likely reason that specialist predators can be more vulnerable to extinction than generalist predators? A. They have fewer alternatives if one food source disappears. B. They already have smaller population sizes than generalists do. C. They face more competition for resources than generalists do. D. They have fewer adaptations to their preferred environment.

Answers

Correct option is A, specialist predators can be more vulnerable to extinction than generalist predators because they have fewer alternatives if one food source disappears.

Specialist predators are more vulnerable to extinction than generalist predators for several reasons, but the MOST likely reason is that specialist predators rely on a narrow range of prey species for their survival. If the specialist predator's primary prey population declines or disappears, the predator may not be able to find enough food to survive and reproduce. This can lead to a decline in the predator population, making them more vulnerable to extinction.

In contrast, generalist predators have a wider range of prey options, and are often able to switch to alternative prey if their primary food source becomes scarce. This flexibility allows generalist predators to adapt to changes in the ecosystem more easily, which increases their chances of survival.

Additionally, because specialist predators rely on a narrow range of prey, they may be more affected by environmental disturbances, such as habitat loss or climate change, that impact the availability of their prey. Generalist predators, on the other hand, may be better equipped to adapt to these changes and find new food sources.

Therefore, the limited diet of specialist predators makes them more susceptible to changes in their environment, which increases their risk of extinction compared to generalist predators.

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Identify the DNA you extracted whether is moat likely to be nuclear DNA,mitochondrial DNA or chloro-plastic DNA

Answers

any more information, the kind of DNA you extracted. To assist you in determining the type of DNA you are dealing with, I can offer some broad traits of each type:

Nuclear DNA is the DNA that may be found in eukaryotic cells' nuclei. It is inherited from both parents and includes the majority of an organism's genetic material. During meiosis, it passes through recombination and is arranged into chromosomes. DNA profiling and genetic analysis frequently include nuclear DNA.Mitochondrial DNA: This is the DNA found in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. Mitochondria are organelles that produce energy for the cell through cellular respiration. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited solely from the mother and is often used in evolutionary studies and population genetics.Chloroplast DNA: This is the DNA found in the chloroplasts of plant cells. Chloroplasts are organelles that conduct photosynthesis in plants. Chloroplast DNA is inherited maternally and is often used in plant evolutionary studies and phylogenetic analysis.

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Fluid from the tissues of the body is constantly being collected and transported back to the veins in the blood system.
Ever since her plastic surgery, Rebecca has suffered from a decrease in this kind of circulation. What kind of massage
could be helpful for Rebecca?

sports massage

reflexology

trigger-point therapy

Lymph massage

Answers

A lymph massage would be most beneficial for Rebecca in this situation.

lymph massage

In order to increase the movement of lymphatic fluid throughout the body, lymph massage, sometimes referred to as lymphatic drainage massage, stimulates the lymphatic system.

This may aid in reducing swelling, reducing inflammation, and improving general circulation. This is especially advantageous for those whose lymphatic systems may have been disturbed by plastic surgery or other medical operations.

Sports massage, reflexology, and trigger-point therapy can all be beneficial for treating particular body parts that are tense or painful, but they might not be as good as lymph massage for enhancing lymphatic circulation.

For the greatest advice on the best course of action for your particular needs, speak with a qualified massage therapist or medical expert.

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What is flattening the curve and how does it prevent an outbreak?

Answers

Flattening the curve refers to the idea of reducing the number of new infections in a community during an outbreak of a contagious disease such as COVID-19.

The goal is to slow down the spread of the virus and reduce the burden on healthcare systems by ensuring that the number of people requiring medical attention does not exceed the capacity of healthcare facilities.

The term "curve" refers to the graph that represents the number of cases over time. If the number of cases grows exponentially, it will create a sharp curve that rises quickly and can overwhelm healthcare systems. By flattening the curve, the rate of new infections is slowed down, and the curve is flattened, so the number of cases does not exceed the healthcare system's capacity. Flattening the curve is achieved by implementing public health measures such as social distancing, wearing masks, and staying at home whenever possible.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Another way to think of agonists and antagonists, with respect to their involvement in the actions of neurotransmitters, is that agonists ________, whereas antagonists ________ the action of neurotransmitters.

Answers

Another way to think of agonists and antagonists, with respect to their involvement in the actions of neurotransmitters, is that agonists enhance or mimic, whereas antagonists block or reduce the action of neurotransmitters.

Agonists are chemicals or drugs that enhance or mimic the actions of neurotransmitters. They bind to the same receptors as the neurotransmitters and activate them, causing an increase in the neurotransmitter's effects.

On the other hand, antagonists are chemicals or drugs that block or reduce the actions of neurotransmitters. They bind to the same receptors as the neurotransmitters but do not activate them. Instead, they prevent the neurotransmitters from binding to the receptors and activating them, reducing the neurotransmitter's effects.

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what type of power does this structure produce

Answers

The power that is generated by this structure is hydroelectric.

What kind of energy does a power plant generate?

A turbine generator set transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy to produce electricity. Natural gas, a coal, nuclear fission, biomass, petroleum, geothermal, and solar thermal all use the heat they generate to turn water into steam, which turns the turbine's blades.

How many different kinds of electricity generating exist?

Nuclear power production, thermal power generation, and hydroelectric power generation are the three basic categories for differentiation. Nuclear Power Generation: Nuclear power plants use the heat produced by nuclear fission to produce electricity.

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Question:

What type of power does this structure produce?

A. Geothermal

B. Nuclear

C. Wind

D. Hydroelectric

as you've seen in the simulation, the predator-prey interaction maintains a dynamic equilibrium that self-regulates. neither the moose population nor the wolf population can grow unchecked by the other. and if one population drops, the other is affected. can you summarize the general cycle of the predator-prey interaction? place the terms in the appropriate blanks to complete the sentences. terms may be used more than once.

Answers

The general cycle of predator-prey interaction can be summarized as- When the predator population is high, the prey population is low. In turn, when the prey population is low, the predator population decreases due to starvation.

As predators hunt more, the prey population is slowly depleted. If the predator population is too high, it becomes harder for them to locate and kill prey, which results in a decline in their population.

When the prey population is low, predators may die due to starvation.

When the predator population is low, the prey population increases. With fewer predators, the prey population has fewer threats. As a result, the population will increase because of less predation.

When the prey population is high, the predator population increases. With more prey to hunt, the predators have more food, and the population will increase.

The predator-prey interaction maintains a dynamic equilibrium that self-regulates.

Therefore, the moose population or the wolf population can't grow unchecked by the other, and if one population drops, the other is affected. The predator-prey interaction is closely interrelated.

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_____ is the active form of a digestive enzyme in the stomach that breaks polypeptide chains into smaller polypeptides.

Answers

Pepsin is the active form of a digestive enzyme in the stomach that breaks polypeptide chains into smaller polypeptides. So the suitable term to fill in the blank is pepsin.

Pepsin is a digestive enzyme produced in the stomach that helps to break down proteins into smaller peptides. It is one of the chief digestive enzymes in the stomach, created in an inactive form called pepsinogen by the chief cells in the gastric glands, which line the stomach walls. When pepsinogen mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach, it transforms into pepsin. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme, which means that it is an inactive precursor to the active form of an enzyme.

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A population is growing quickly when parasites cause disease to spread quickly.​

Answers

The statement about population growing quickly when parasites cause disease to spread is not true. Parasites can certainly contribute to the spread of disease, which can reduce particular populations.

Parasites and Disease Spread

Parasites are organisms that live on or within another organism (the host) and benefit at the host's expense. There are many different types of parasites, including viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and worms. Parasites can cause a wide range of diseases and health problems in their hosts, from mild discomfort to severe illness and even death.

The spread of diseases can occur through a variety of means, including direct contact with an infected person or animal, contact with contaminated objects or surfaces, ingestion of contaminated food or water, and transmission by vectors such as mosquitoes or ticks. The specific factors that contribute to the spread of a particular disease depend on many factors, including the type of disease, the characteristics of the host and the parasite, and the environmental conditions in which they interact.

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Brain-Heart Infusion broth is commonly used in microbiology laboratories for the propagation of many different kinds of bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus. Check all of the following terms that can be used to describe Brain-Heart Infusion broth.- defined- synthetic- complex- selective- differential

Answers

Brain-Heart Infusion broth is a complex media used for the propagation of many different kinds of bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus. It is also selective and differential, meaning it can distinguish different types of bacteria in a sample.



- Complex: Brain-Heart Infusion broth is a complex media, meaning that it contains a variety of nutrients, including proteins, carbohydrates, and vitamins, that support the growth of a wide range of bacteria.

- Synthetic: Brain-Heart Infusion broth is not a synthetic media, as it contains ingredients that are derived from natural sources, such as brain and heart tissue.

- Defined: Brain-Heart Infusion broth is not a defined media, as the exact composition of the ingredients is not known.

- Selective: Brain-Heart Infusion broth is not a selective media, as it does not contain any ingredients that inhibit the growth of certain types of bacteria while allowing others to grow.

- Differential: Brain-Heart Infusion broth is not a differential media, as it does not contain any ingredients that allow for the differentiation of bacteria based on their metabolic or biochemical characteristics.

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Explain how cells produced by meiosis will end up with half the nimber of chromosomes a normal body cell will have. Why is this important?​

Answers

The answer is that meiosis produces haploid cells (gametes) with half the number of chromosomes as normal body cells through two rounds of cell division. This is important for sexual reproduction.

What is meiosis?

Meiosis is a specialized form of cell division that is essential for sexual reproduction in eukaryotic organisms. It occurs in the gonads (testes in males and ovaries in females) and results in the production of haploid gametes, which have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This is important because when two gametes fuse during fertilization, the resulting zygote will have a full set of chromosomes, half from each parent. This is important for sexual reproduction, genetic diversity, and the maintenance of a constant chromosome number from generation to generation.

Hence, the answer is that meiosis produces haploid cells (gametes) with half the number of chromosomes as normal body cells through two rounds of cell division.

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differences between biodegradable and non biodegradable materials in atable

Answers

Wastes to freely decay or decay are said to as biogas. Wastes that are biodegradable are non-biodegradable. Biodegradable things involve stuff like plant, birds, & its waste, plus papers, fruits, & vegetables.

What exactly do we mean by "biodegradable"?

The ability of a material to decompose organically by the creatures in an environment is what we mean when we say something is biodegradable. Simply simply, "biodegradable" denotes a substance's ability to spontaneously disintegrate into smaller parts like gases and sugars. Microorganisms like bacteria and fungus enable the biodegradation to take place.

Describe a biodegradable example.

Biodegradable materials that can be broken down by microbes include food waste and paper scraps.

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In pea plants, tall (T) plants are dominant over short (t) plants. Make Punnett Squares for each of the following crosses and give phenotypic ratios of the offspring.
a. TT x tt
b. Tt x tt
c. Tt x Tt

Answers

In pea plants, tall (T) plants are dominant over short (t) plants. This means that if a plant has at least one dominant allele (T), it will be tall. A plant will only be short if it has two recessive alleles (tt).

a. TT x tt:
| T | T |
---|---|---|
t | Tt | Tt |
t | Tt | Tt |

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 4:0 (all tall).

b. Tt x tt:
| T | t |
---|---|---|
t | Tt | tt |
t | Tt | tt |

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 2:2 (or 1:1, half tall and half short).

c. Tt x Tt:
| T | t |
---|---|---|
T | TT | Tt |
t | Tt | tt |

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be 3:1 (three tall and one short).

The genotypes of a specific cross or breeding experiment are predicted using the Punnett square, a square diagram. It bears Reginald C. Punnett's name, who developed the method in 1905. Biologists use the figure to calculate the likelihood that a child will have a specific genotype.

The genetic makeup of sperm and ova, the sex cells or gametes used in conception, determines the genotype of a kid. From each parent came one sex cell. Normal sex cells only have one copy of each gene for each characteristic (e.g., one copy of the T or t form of the gene in the example above).

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What is the answer I really need help please.

Answers

I think the answer is A

several proteins must work in a coordinating fashion to achieve v(d)j recombination. which is responsible for adding non-templated nucleotides to the v-d and d-j joints of ig heavy chains?

Answers

TdT. V(D)J recombination in the immune system results in antigen receptor diversity. The task of TdT during V (D) J recombination is to add nucleotides to the gene segment junctions.

The TdT gene is present in pre-B and pre-T cells and is more common in some forms of human leukemia. TdT is a valuable biochemical marker for classifying various kinds of leukaemia.

It seems clear that there are connections between TdT, immune cell development, B and T cell rearrangements, and hemostasis. Research into these scenarios in cord blood is essential since umbilical cord blood is a rich source of CD34-positive cells that can be used in HSC-transplantation in immunotherapy for many types of cancer. It can therefore be used to treat leukaemia along with TdT inhibition.

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During the Precambrian time the oceans and atmosphere formed around Earth and the concentration of oxygen gas eventually reach the point where it could support a aerobic​

Answers

Respiration is the movement of oxygen from the external terrain to tissue cells and the elimination of carbon dioxide.

In Precambrian times, abysses and an atmosphere formed around the earth, and oxygen attention ultimately reached a point where it could support aerobic respiration.

The Precambrian atmosphere didn't contain as important oxygen as it does moment, but 2.2 billion times ago there was enough to rust iron. Breathing is important because it creates the energy the body needs to serve.

inventories the cells with oxygen and emits toxic carbon dioxide. When oxygen reaches the cells, that oxygen breaks down the glucose in the digested food, releasing energy.

Aerobic respiration is the process by which organisms use oxygen to burn energies similar as fats and sugars into chemical energy.

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Which of the following represents the mRNA codon for the next amino acid that is being attached in this diagram?

Answers

The gene alignment οf the CGU represents the mRNA cοdοn fοr the next aminο acid that is this diagram.

What is RNA?

οne οf the twο varieties οf nucleic acid that cells prοduce. Infοrmatiοn frοm DNA is replicated intο RNA (the οther type οf nucleic acid). Each type οf RNA that cells prοduce perfοrms a particular functiοn within the cell. Many different types οf RNA serve purpοses in the synthesis οf prοteins.

What is DNA ?Deοxyribοse nucleic acid is what DNA actually is. Any prοkaryοtic οr eukaryοtic cell can cοntain it. Cοmpοsed οf nucleοtides, it has a dοuble helical shape. Each nucleοtide has a nitrοgenοus base, a phοsphate grοup, and a sugar.

The gene alignment οf the CGU represents the mRNA cοdοn fοr the next aminο acid that is this diagram.

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Why are they called conflict diamonds

Answers

Explanation:

blood diamond, also called conflict diamond, as defined by the United Nations (UN), any diamond that is mined in areas controlled by forces opposed to the legitimate, internationally recognized government of a country and that is sold to fund military action against that government.

TRUE/FALSE. Interpret the models of three phyla of worms. Nematoda -Cuticle Mouth Anus Annelida Anus Mouth Platyhelminthes Drag "True" or "False" to the end of each statement. Reset Help True Nematoda is the only phylum of the three with a cuticle. True False Since none of these phyla have a head, none have an anterior and False Pihelminthes uses the same opening as a "mouth and an anus." False False Since none of these phyla have a head, none have an anterior end. False Platyhelminthes uses the same opening as a mouth and an anus." False These three phyla of worms are the same size. False All three models show cross sections. False Annelida is the only phylum of the three with segmentation, False 2

Answers

True because the internet molecules are false and we’re never true in the first place

The oldest massage school in the United States, the Swedish Institute of Physiotherapy, opened in New York City in
1940.

True

False

Answers

Swedish Institute has served as a cornerstone of New York City's educational infrastructure. Since it initially officially opened in 1916, it has held the distinction of being the nation's oldest massage therapy .

Correct answer is : True.

What massage is the oldest?

The "Con-Fu of the Toa-Tse" ancient Chinese medical treatise has the first known written account of massage, which dates back roughly 3,000 years (1800BCE). The utilisation of massage techniques as therapeutic purposes was covered in detail in the book. Several people think that acupressure actually got its start there much earlier.

What makes Swedish massage popular?

Swedish massage is the most widely recognized and commonly used style of massage therapist for good reason. In contrast to deep-tissue massage, which targets connective tissues, this style of massage concentrates on relaxing muscles while also promoting blood circulation.

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Symmetry refers to an animal's molecular structure. True or false

Answers

False. Symmetry refers to an animal's body plan, specifically the arrangement of body parts around a central axis or plane.

It describes how the animal's body is organized and can be used to classify different animal groups.

Molecular structure, on the other hand, refers to the arrangement of atoms and chemical bonds within a molecule. It is important in determining the molecule's properties and functions. Animals can have different types of symmetry, such as radial symmetry, bilateral symmetry, or asymmetry. Radial symmetry refers to the arrangement of body parts around a central axis, where the animal can be divided into equal halves in any plane that passes through the center. This type of symmetry is found in animals such as jellyfish, sea anemones, and starfish.

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Exploring Meiosis and the Chi-Square Test. You and your partner will be exploring meiosis in a unique organism that has a diploid genome made up of 4 chromosomes. Despite the difference in chromosome number, this organism undergoes meiosis in a manner that mimics the process in humans. One of the pairs of homologous chromosomes encodes a gene for fur texture (Gene F), which has alleles F (soft fur) and f(spiky fur). The other pair of homologous chromosomes encodes a gene for fur color (Gene R), which has alleles R (red fur) and r (yellow fur). You and your partner will now be illustrating the steps for meiosis for two organisms with different genotypes. One person should illustrate the steps of meiosis for a true breeding individual with spiky, red fur. The other person should illustrate the steps of meiosis for another true breeding individual with soft, yellow fur What is your individual's genotype? Illustrate your individual organism's meiosis, beginning with the start of interphase. Label each major step and list how many chromosomes and chromatids exist at each of the stages:

Answers

The individual with spiky, red fur has the genotype ffRR results in four haploid daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids, and the genotype fR.
The individual with soft, yellow fur has the genotype FFrr, results in four haploid daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids, and the genotype Fr.

Meiosis for the individual with spiky, red fur (ffRR):

1. Interphase: The DNA replicates, resulting in 8 chromatids (4 pairs of sister chromatids) and 4 chromosomes.

2. Prophase I: The homologous chromosomes pair up and crossing over occurs, resulting in genetic recombination.

3. Metaphase I: The homologous chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

4. Anaphase I: The homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

5. Telophase I: The cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 4 chromatids.

6. Prophase II: The sister chromatids condense and prepare for separation.

7. Metaphase II: The sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell.

8. Anaphase II: The sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

9. Telophase II: The cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids.

10. The result is four haploid daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids, and the genotype fR.

Meiosis for the individual with soft, yellow fur (FFrr):

1. Interphase: The DNA replicates, resulting in 8 chromatids (4 pairs of sister chromatids) and 4 chromosomes.

2. Prophase I: The homologous chromosomes pair up and crossing over occurs, resulting in genetic recombination.

3. Metaphase I: The homologous chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

4. Anaphase I: The homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

5. Telophase I: The cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 4 chromatids.

6. Prophase II: The sister chromatids condense and prepare for separation.

7. Metaphase II: The sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell.

8. Anaphase II: The sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

9. Telophase II: The cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids.

10. The result is four haploid daughter cells, each with 2 chromosomes and 2 chromatids, and the genotype Fr.

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Do the ion-concentration differences between resting potential and the end of an action
potential surprise you? Why or why not?

Answers

The ion-concentration differences are not surprising as they are a result of ion channel activity and ion pumps.

The particle fixation contrasts between resting potential and the finish of an activity potential don't shock me since they are a consequence of the movement of particle diverts in the cell layer. During resting potential, the centralization of sodium particles is higher external the phone, while the grouping of potassium particles is higher inside the phone. This is kept up with by the activity of particle siphons that effectively transport particles across the film. During an activity potential, particle channels open, permitting sodium particles to stream into the phone and potassium particles to stream out of the phone. This makes an impermanent inversion of the fixation slope, which is then reestablished by the particle siphons. This interaction requires energy and time, which is the reason the particle focuses are different toward the finish of an activity potential. Generally speaking, the particle fixation contrasts mirror the mind boggling and dynamic nature of cell physiology, and they are fundamental for the legitimate working of the sensory system.

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Some researchers believe that cloning is an inefficient technology that will result in tremendous loss of animal life. Successfully cloned animals most often develop sudden health problems and are less likely to live a normal lifespan.


Which term best describes the issue raised about cloning?


environmental

ethical

legal

social

Answers

The term that best describes the issue is ethical issues

What are the ethical reasons against animal cloning?

Cloning can cause significant harm and suffering to animals. For example, many cloned animals suffer from severe health problems and have a higher risk of birth defects and premature death.

Some people believe that cloning is morally wrong because it involves manipulating and altering the natural processes of reproduction and genetic inheritance.

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Need some help in science

Answers

Answer: Carbohydrates

Explanation:

Other Questions
Identify three skill that some grade 1w learners may lack when entering the job market Explain how the economy grew dramatically during the "Roaring Twenties" and what the "Roaring Twenties" was all about. Please help this is due today! :(Reread the poem "Fish." Then, follow the instructions that follow.FishPliant blades of silver lightCut their way through knots of seaThey are thoughts of sheer delightA fish-man, what joy to be!-- Annis MatherFind two metaphors that stand for "fish" and type them in the appropriate boxes below.Five-word metaphor: Four-word metaphor:If you do this I will give you 30 points and brainly!! A road is5/9 of a mile long. A crew needs to repave 2/3 of the road. How long is the section that needs to be repaved? BRAINLIESTT ASAP! PLEASE HELP ME :)Determine whether statement (3) follows from statements (1) and (2) by the Law of Detachment or the Law of Syllogism. If it does, state which law was used. If it does not, write invalid. (1) If you use a pencil you can erase mistakes. (2) If you can erase mistakes your paper will be neater. (3) If you use a pencil your paper will be neater. A. InvalidB. Yes; Law of DetachmentC. Yes; Law of Syllogism As given on the STEPS Engineers Ireland website ( Engineers Week, Secondary School section) how many free engineering activities are available to download by teachers for classroom use? As a way to preserve the social conditions of slavery after the end of the CivilWar, many state legislatures in the South passed.A. White CodesB. Correction CodesC. Black CodesD. Reconstruction Codes Daes temperature in your area very from time to time? A city has 5 new houses for every 8 old houses. If there are 30 new houses in the city, how many old houses are there? when cash from operating activities is presented using the indirect method, net income must be adjusted for increases and decreases in balance sheet accounts that relate to multiple choice question. The Fed has been and seems to be likely to continue raising interest rates. How would thisimpact the market for bonds today? Would it impact demand or supply? Would it cause anincrease or decrease? How would it impact the equilibrium quantity, price and interest rate?***Select all that apply.**a. The demand for bonds decreases.b. The demand for bonds increases.c. The demand for bonds stays the same.d. The supply of bonds decreases.e. The supply of bonds increases.f. The supply of bonds stays the same.g. The equilibrium quantity rises.h. The equilibrium quantity falls.i. The equilibrium price rises.j. The equilibrium price falls.k. The equilibrium interest rate rises.l. The equilibrium interest rate falls. Your friend was reading an article on the theories of Modigliani & Miller which noted that, in the absence of bankruptcy costs, the value of the levered firm increases as the level of debt increases. He has asked you to explain this concept.Required: Provide calculations to demonstrate this theory put forward by Modigliani & Miller. What role did industrial capitalism play in American life and in the United States' rise as a world power? I dont know what the answer are. Can some one please help. Calculate how far a ball would be hit if it was hit at an angle of 25 and a velocity of 80 mph. in the corn futures contract, the following delivery months are available: march, may, july, september, and december. state the contract that should be used for hedging when the expiration of the hedge is in a) june, b) july, and c) january. 1. (20 marks) A survey database shows that 20 percent of the adults in country A have been tested for HIV at some point in their life. (a) Suppose that an adult who has been tested for HIV at some point in his life is needed in a study. Some adults are randomly selected from the population of country A in the selection process until the one who has been tested for HIV is found. Let X be the number of adults selected in this process. Show that the cumulative probability P(Xx)=10.8 x . (4 marks) (b) Using the formula of P(Xx) in (a), find the probability that the number of adults selected in the process are: (i) Three, (ii) Less than five, (iii) Between five and nine, inclusive, (iv) More than five, but less than 10, (v) Six or more. (5 marks) (c) Find the mean and variance of the number of people selected in the above process. (3 marks) (d) Consider a simple random sample of 18 adults. Find the probability that the number of adults who have been tested for HIV in the sample would be: (i) Three, (ii) Less than five, (iii) Between five and nine, inclusive, (iv) More than five, but less than 10 , (v) Six or more. ( 5 marks) (e) Find the mean and variance of the number of people tested for HIV in the sample. (3 marks) Is the study of religion and spirituality a part of social studies? The product of two positive number is 108. If one one number is treble of other number, find those number Find the Pearson correlation coefficient r for the given points. Round any intermediate calculations to no less than six decimal places, and round your final answer to three decimal places.(1,6), (2,10), (3,4), (4,4), (5,8), (6,2), (7,2)