o
You select a marble without looking and then put it back. If you do this 12 times, what is the best prediction possible for the number of times you will pick an orange marble?

The trigonometric expression 1/sin(2x) - cos(2x)/sin(2x) = tanx

A trigonometric expression is an equation that contains trigonometric ratios.

Given the expression 1/sin(2x) - cos(2x)/sin(2x), we need to find the expression that is equivalent to it.

So, we proceed as follows.

1/sin(2x) - cos(2x)/sin(2x) = [1 - cos(2x)]/sin(2x),

Using the trigonometric identity cos2x = cos²x - sin²x and sin2x = 2sinxcosx, we have that

[1 - cos(2x)]/sin(2x) = [1 - (cos²x - sin²x)]/2sinxcosx

=  [1 - cos²x + sin²x)]/2sinxcosx

Now, 1 - cos²x = sin²x.

So, substituting this into the equation, we have that

[1 - cos²x + sin²x)]/2sinxcosx = [sin²x + sin²x)]/2sinxcosx

=  [sin²x + sin²x)]/2sinxcosx

=  2sin²x/2sinxcosx

=  sinx/cosx

= tanx

So, 1/sin(2x) - cos(2x)/sin(2x),= tanx

Learn more about trigonometric expression here:

https://brainly.com/question/26311351

#SPJ1

Answer: 1) 66 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

1) 22x3=66

2) C

Hope this helps! :)

Answer: x = -5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=-5

7 - 4 * (-5)

Negative times a negative equals a positive

-4*-5=20

7+20=27

The slope of the line perpendicular to the line is m = ( 7/2 )

Given data ,

The equation of the given line is y = -2/7x + 3/7.

Now , it is in slope-intercept form, y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.

The slope of the given line is -2/7, which means that for any line perpendicular to this line, the slope would be the negative reciprocal of -2/7.

So , m = ( 7/2 )

Hence , the slope of the perpendicular line is = 7/2

To learn more about equation of line click :

https://brainly.com/question/14200719

#SPJ1

The meaning of the absolute value of -5.5 is given as follows:

The temperature decreases 5.5 degrees.

The absolute value of a number is the number without the signal, for example:

|-2| = |2| = 2.

The number in this problem is given as follows:

-5.5.

Hence:

Hence the second option is the correct option in the context of this problem.

More can be learned about the absolute value of a number at brainly.com/question/24368848

#SPJ1

Answer:

m/2 -6= m/4+2 can be solved as follows:

Multiply both sides of the equation by the least common multiple of the denominators, which is 4:

4(m/2 - 6) = 4(m/4 + 2)

2m - 24 = m + 8

Subtract m from both sides:

m - 24 = 8

Add 24 to both sides:

m = 32

Therefore, the value of m is C) 32.

k/12 = 25/100 can be solved as follows:

Multiply both sides of the equation by 12:

k = 12 * (25/100)

k = 3

Therefore, the value of k is A) 3.

9/5 = 3x/100 can be solved as follows:

Multiply both sides of the equation by 100:

100 * (9/5) = 3x

Simplify:

180/5 = 3x

36 = 3x

Divide both sides by 3:

x = 12

Therefore, the value of x is not one of the options provided.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: \frac{m}{2} - 6 = \frac{m}{4} + 2 \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: \frac{m - 12}{2} = \frac{m + 8}{4}\\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 4(m - 12) =2(m + 8)\\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 4m \: - 48 =2m + 16\\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 4m \: - 2m = 16 + 48\\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \:2m = 64\\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \:m = \frac{64}{2} \: \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \:m = 32 \: \\ [/tex]

[tex] \qquad{ \underline{\overline{ \boxed{ \sf{ \: \: C) \: \: \: 32 \: \: \: \: \: \checkmark }}}}} \: \: \bigstar[/tex]

__________________________________________

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: \frac{k}{12} = \frac{25}{100} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: 100(k)= 12(25) \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: 100 \times k= 12 \times 25 \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: 100 k= 300 \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: k= \frac{300}{100} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \leadsto \: k= 3 \\ [/tex]

[tex] \qquad{ \underline{\overline{ \boxed{ \sf{ \: \: a) \: \: \: 3 \: \: \: \: \: \checkmark }}}}} \: \: \bigstar[/tex]

__________________________________________

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: \frac{9}{5} = \frac{3x}{100} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 100(9)= 5(3x) \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 100 \times 9= 5 \times 3x \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: 900= 15x \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: x= \frac{900}{15} \\ [/tex]

[tex] \sf \longrightarrow \: k= 60 \\ [/tex]

[tex]\qquad{\underline{\overline {\boxed{ \sf{ \: \: a) \: \: \: 60 \: \: \: \: \: \checkmark }}}}} \: \: \bigstar[/tex]

__________________________________________

Question 11 seems to have strange typos in it. Please double-check to make sure it has been typed correctly.

I'm not sure how to answer that one.

----------

I'll focus on Question 12.

The long division scratch work is shown in the image attachment below.

The answer to problem 12 is  x+9 remainder -7x-7

Please let me know if you have questions about any step of the polynomial long division process.

The value of the most expensive car loan that Cindy can afford is $13,712

We are given that;

Amount= $215

Percentage= 2.1%

PMT = 215 i = 0.021 / 12 = 0.00175 (the annual interest rate divided by 12 months) n = 6 × 12 = 72 (the number of months in 6 years)

Now,

The formula for the present value of an annuity is:

PV = PMT × (1 - 1/(1 + i)^n) / i

where:

PV = present value PMT = payment amount i = interest rate per period n = number of periods

Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

PV = 215 × (1 - 1/(1 + 0.00175)^72) / 0.00175 PV = 215 × (1 - 0.888) / 0.00175 PV = 215 × 0.112 / 0.00175 PV = 13,712

Therefore, by the percentage the answer will be $13,712.

Learn more about percent here:

https://brainly.com/question/11549320

#SPJ1

The 30th percentile in the uniform distribution is 2.4 min.

The correct option is (b)

The probability formula is defined as the ratio of favorable outcomes to the ratio of total outcomes. For any event (E), :

P(E)= Number of favorable outcomes/ Number of total outcomes

[tex]\mu=\frac{a +b}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma=\sqrt{\frac{(b-a)^2}{12} }[/tex]

P(x) = 1/ b - a if a < x < b

P(X < a) = 0

and

P(X > b) = 0

In this case, a = 0 and b = 8

The 30th percentile in the uniform distribution, this means that the probability is 0.30. Therefore:

0.3 = [tex]\frac{1}{8-0}.x[/tex]

0.3 (8 -0) = x

2.4 = x

Learn more about Uniform distribution at:

https://brainly.com/question/13233983

#SPJ1

The given question is incomplete, complete question is :

The Sky Train from the terminal to the rental-car and long-term parking center is supposed to arrive every eight minutes. The waiting times for the train are known to follow a uniform distribution. Find the 30th percentile for the waiting times (in minutes).

a. 2

b. 2.4

c. 2.75

d. 3

Answer:

80%

Step-by-step explanation:

After all the trade he got 50 stickers

40 Big

10 small

50 stickers is 100%

40B stickers is ??

WE multiply 40 by 100 then divide by 50

so 80%

Victoria's statement that her running speed is faster an elephant's does not make sense because it is based on the comparison of unlike units of measurement.

Elephant's running speed = 100 yards in 20 seconds

= 5 yards per second (100 ÷ 20)

1 yard = 3 feet

5 yards = 15 feet (5 x 3)

The elephant's running speed = 15 feet per second.

Victoria's running speed = 60 feet in 10 seconds

= 6 feet per second (60  ÷ 10)

Thus, we conclude that the elephant's running speed is 15 feet per second, while Victoria does 6 feet per second, making her claim untrue.

Learn more about units of measurement at https://brainly.com/question/777464.

#SPJ1

The value of the smaller of the two missing sides (the second leg) is,

⇒ 144 units

We have to given that;

The length of one of the legs of a right triangle is 17.

And, The lengths of the other two sides are consecutive integers.

Hence, Let the smallest of the other legs be x,

And, the hypotenuse be x + 1.

So, By using the Pythagorean theorem as;

⇒ 17² + x² = (x + 1)²

⇒ 289 + x² = x² + 1 + 2x

⇒ 2x = 288

⇒ x = 144

Thus, The value of the smaller of the two missing sides (the second leg) is,

⇒ 144 units

Learn more about the Pythagoras theorem visit:

https://brainly.com/question/343682

#SPJ1

The length of the arc GH is 13.3 cm

The length of an arc is the distance that runs through the curved line of the circle making up the arc.

The length of an arc is expressed as;

l = tetha/360 × 2πr

tetha = R

R = 360-( 170+80)

R = 360-250

R = 110°

l = 110/360 × 2 × 3.14 × 6.4

l = 4787.2/369

l = 13.3 cm (1.dp)

therefore the length of the arc GH is 13.3 cm

learn more about length of an arc from

https://brainly.com/question/2005046

#SPJ1

Answer:

First, we need to calculate the absolute error, which is the difference between the predicted value and the actual value:

Absolute error = |predicted value - actual value| = |87 - 107| = 20

Then, we can calculate the percent error using the formula:

Percent error = (absolute error / actual value) x 100%

Plugging in the values, we get:

Percent error = (20 / 107) x 100% ≈ 18.69%

Therefore, the percent error of the baker's prediction is approximately 18.69%.

Answer: The IQR of this data set is 5.5

Step-by-step explanation: Ok so first you line the data set up in correct order.

Here's the correct order:

13, 15, 15, 16, 18, 19, 22, 28

Then you find the median and since there's even amount of numbers you add the two numbers in the middle which is 16 and 18 and divide that by 2 which is 17. So the median is 17. Then you split the data set into halves. The first quartile is 15 and the third quartile is 20.5. Then to find the IQR, you would minus 20.5 - 15 = 5.5. Hope this helps!

Answer:

There would be a 38% or 8/21 probability of picking a red jelly bean on the first draw and a 20% or 4/20 probability of picking a blue jelly bean on the second.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 21 jelly beans in total. So on the first draw, there is an 8/21 chance you will get a red jelly bean. If you turn this fraction into a percentage, it is 38%.

Now that a jelly bean is missing, there are 20 jelly beans. There are four blue ones still, so there is a 4/20 chance of getting a blue jelly bean. Turning this ratio into a percent gets you 20%.

I would love a brainliest. I haven't had one yet and it would make my day. Hope this helped you!

The  probability of selecting a red jelly bean on the first draw and a blue jelly bean on the second draw is 32/441.

Probability refers to potential. A random event's occurrence is the subject of this area of mathematics.

The range of the value is 0 to 1. Mathematics has incorporated probability to forecast the likelihood of various events.

The degree to which something is likely to happen is basically what probability means.

We have,

The jar contains 8 red, 2 green, 4 blue, and 7 pink, jelly beans.

total beans = 8 + 2 + 4 + 7 = 21

So, the probability of selecting a red jelly bean on the first draw and a blue jelly bean on the second draw

= 8/21 x 4 / 21

= 32 /441

Learn more about Probability here:

brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Select the smaller fraction. 1/10 or 1/2

1/10 = 1 : 10 = 0.1

1/2 = 1 : 2 = 0.5

so your answer is 1/10

The surface area of the cylinder in terms of pi is:

S = pi*301 cm²

We know that for a cylinder of radius R and height H the surface area is:

S = pi*( 2RH + R²)

Here the height is 18 cm and the diameter is 14cm, then the radius is.

R = 14cm/2 = 7cm

Then the surface area will be:

S = pi*(2*7cm*18cm + (7cm)*7cm)

S = pi*301 cm²

That is the surface area in terms of pi.

Learn more about cylinders at:

https://brainly.com/question/9554871

#SPJ1

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the lowest common multiple (LCM) of 36 and 30, we can use the prime factorization method:First, we can find the prime factorization of each number:36 = 2^2 * 3^230 = 2 * 3 * 5Next, we can take the highest power of each prime factor that appears in either number and multiply them together.The highest power of 2 is 2^2 = 4.The highest power of 3 is 3^2 = 9.The highest power of 5 is 5^1 = 5.Multiplying these together, we get:LCM(36, 30) = 2^2 * 3^2 * 5 = 180Therefore, the lowest common multiple of 36 and 30 is 180.

Answer: 180

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the lowest common multiple (LCM) of two numbers, we need to find the smallest number that is a multiple of both of them.

One way to do this is to find the prime factorization of each number and then take the product of all the prime factors, with each factor occurring as many times as it appears in the factorization of either number.

The prime factorization of 36 is 2^2 × 3^2, and the prime factorization of 30 is 2 × 3 × 5. Therefore, the LCM of 36 and 30 can be found by taking the product of the highest power of each prime factor that appears in either factorization:

LCM(36, 30) = 2^2 × 3^2 × 5 = 180

Therefore, the lowest common multiple of 36 and 30 is 180.

Answer:

The equation that describes a vertical translation of the square root parent function is A. y = x − 4−−√ + k where k is the vertical shift.

The square root parent function is f(x) = √x. To perform a vertical translation of this function, we add or subtract a constant value to the function. In this case, the function y = x − 4−−√ represents a vertical translation of the square root parent function by 4 units downwards.

Option B, y = x−−√−6 represents a vertical translation of the square root parent function by 6 units downwards. Option C, y = x−−√, represents the square root parent function without any vertical shift. Option D, y = −x−−√, represents a reflection of the square root parent function about the y-axis.

The zeros of g(x)= -(x+2) (x-3) (x-3) are -2 and 3.

We are given that;

g (x) = -(x+2) (x-3) (x-3)

Now,

To determine the zeros of g(x) = -(x+2)(x-3)(x-3), we need to find the values of x that make g(x) equal to zero. This means that we need to solve the equation:

−(x+2)(x−3)(x−3)=0

To solve this equation, we can use the zero product property, which states that if the product of two or more factors is zero, then at least one of the factors must be zero. Therefore, we can set each factor equal to zero and solve for x:

x+2=0orx−3=0

Subtracting 2 from both sides of the first equation, we get:

x=−2

Adding 3 to both sides of the second equation, we get:

x=3

Therefore, by the given equation the answer will be -2 and 3.

To learn more about equations :

brainly.com/question/16763389

#SPJ1

Answer:

The length of the second train is 416.67 meters.

Step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest

The horizontal distance more that Jake was able to cover, given the incline, would be A.4.1 ft.

We can find the horizontal distance that both Jake and Raphael covered .

Jake's distance was:

cos ( 7.9 ° ) = adjacent / 100

adjacent = 100 x 0.989

adjacent = 98.9 ft

Rafael's distance was :

cos ( 18. 3° ) = adjacent / 100

adjacent = 100 x 0.951

adjacent = 95.1 ft

The difference and the distance covered in addition by Jake would be:

= 98. 9 - 95. 1

= 3. 8 ft

The closest option is 4. 1 ft.

Find out more on distance at https://brainly.com/question/24283318

#SPJ1

The acceleration of the collar at point A is 5 ft/s^2.

A) To determine the normal force on the collar at point A, we need to consider the forces acting on the collar. The only force acting on the collar in the vertical direction is the weight of the collar (5 lb), which is balanced by the normal force exerted by the rod. Therefore, we can write:

N - 5 = 0

where N is the normal force. Solving for N, we get:

N = 5 lb

B) To determine the acceleration of the collar at point A, we need to use Newton's second law, which states that the net force acting on an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration. The net force on the collar is given by the force exerted by the spring, which is equal to the spring constant times the displacement of the collar from its unstretched length. At point A, the displacement of the collar is:

x = L - y = 3 - 0 = 3 ft

where L is the length of the rod and y is the position of the collar on the rod. Therefore, the force exerted by the spring is:

F = kx = 10 lb/ft × 3 ft = 30 lb

The weight of the collar is:

W = mg = 5 lb

where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The net force on the collar is therefore:

Fnet = F - W = 30 - 5 = 25 lb

Using Newton's second law, we can write:

Fnet = ma

where a is the acceleration of the collar. Solving for a, we get:

a = Fnet / m = 25 lb / 5 lb = 5 ft/s^2

Therefore, the acceleration of the collar at point A is 5 ft/s^2.

Accelerationhttps://brainly.com/question/16850867

#SPJ11