Luxor Bank plc holds a $100m equity portfolio with a beta of 1.3 relative to the LINQ500
stock index. The LINQ 500 is currently trading at 6,000 points and offers a continuously
compounded dividend yield of 3%. The LINQ500 futures contract has a contract multiple
of $50 per full index point and matures in 6 months. The current risk-free rate of interest
is 4%.
a) Calculate the futures position required to hedge the portfolio using a beta hedge.
b) Three months later the LINQ500 has fallen to 5,400. Calculate the new futures price
and the gain or loss on the futures and spot positions.
c) Discuss any limitations of this hedging strategy.

Answers

Answer 1

a) The futures position required to hedge the portfolio using a beta hedge is 434 contracts. b) The new futures price is 5,314.49, resulting in a gain or loss on the futures and spot positions. c) Limitations of this hedging strategy include potential changes in beta, discrepancies in replication, and the assumption of constant risk-free rate.

a) To calculate the futures position required to hedge the portfolio using a beta hedge, we need to determine the beta-adjusted value of the portfolio. The beta-adjusted value represents the exposure of the portfolio to the LINQ500 index.

Beta-adjusted value = Beta * Portfolio value = 1.3 * $100m = $130m

Next, we calculate the number of LINQ500 futures contracts needed to hedge the portfolio. The contract multiple is $50 per full index point, and the LINQ500 is currently trading at 6,000 points. Therefore, the number of contracts required is:

Number of contracts = Beta-adjusted value / (Contract multiple * LINQ500 index) = $130m / ($50 * 6,000) = 433.33

Since futures contracts cannot be traded in fractional quantities, we round up to the nearest whole number. Thus, the futures position required to hedge the portfolio using a beta hedge is 434 contracts.

b) Three months later, the LINQ500 has fallen to 5,400 points. To calculate the new futures price, we need to consider the continuous dividend yield.

The dividend yield is 3%, which we can convert to a continuous dividend yield using the formula:

Continuous dividend yield = ln(1 + Dividend yield) = ln(1 + 0.03) = 0.0296

Next, we calculate the futures price using the formula:

Futures price = Spot price * e^((Risk-free rate - Continuous dividend yield) * Time to maturity) = 5,400 * e^((0.04 - 0.0296) * (6/12)) = 5,314.49

The gain or loss on the futures position is the difference between the initial futures price (6,000) and the new futures price (5,314.49) multiplied by the number of contracts (434).

The gain or loss on the spot position is the difference between the initial spot price (6,000) and the new spot price (5,400) multiplied by the value of the portfolio ($100m).

c) One limitation of this hedging strategy is that it assumes a constant and linear relationship between the portfolio and the LINQ500 index. In reality, beta values can change over time, especially during periods of market volatility or structural changes in the economy.

If the beta of the portfolio deviates significantly from the initial estimate, the effectiveness of the hedge may be compromised.

Another limitation is that the hedge assumes that the LINQ500 futures contract perfectly replicates the performance of the LINQ500 index.

However, there can be discrepancies due to factors such as transaction costs, liquidity constraints, and basis risk. These discrepancies can result in imperfect hedging and potential losses.

Additionally, the hedge assumes that the risk-free rate of interest remains constant throughout the hedge period. If the risk-free rate changes significantly, it can impact the effectiveness of the hedge.

Overall, while beta hedging can be a useful risk management tool, it is important to regularly monitor and adjust the hedge to account for changes in market conditions and the portfolio's risk profile.

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Related Questions

BRL/USD .18 in nominal currency exchange rate terms. A Toyota Forerunner costs $37,500 in the U.S. The same Forerunner costs 230,000 Brazilian Reals in Brazil. Based on these data points, please select the correct answer choice below.
I. I am better off buying the Forerunner in Brazil. The U.S. is undervalued.
II. I am better off buying the Forerunner in the U.S. The Brazilian Real is overvalued.
III. I am better off buying the Forerunner in the U.S. The Brazilian Real is undervalued.
IV. I am better off buying the Forerunner in Brazil. The Brazilian Real is undervalued.

Answers

To determine the better option for buying the Forerunner, we need to compare the relative value of the Brazilian Real (BRL) to the U.S. Dollar (USD).

Given that the Forerunner costs 230,000 Brazilian Reals in Brazil and $37,500 in the U.S., we can calculate the implied exchange rate:

Implied Exchange Rate = Price in Brazilian Reals / Price in U.S. Dollars

Implied Exchange Rate = 230,000 BRL / $37,500 ≈ 6.13 BRL/USD

Comparing the implied exchange rate to the nominal exchange rate of 0.18 BRL/USD, we can make the following observations:

The implied exchange rate (6.13 BRL/USD) is significantly higher than the nominal exchange rate (0.18 BRL/USD). This indicates that the Brazilian Real is overvalued relative to the U.S. Dollar.

Based on this analysis, the correct answer is II. I am better off buying the Forerunner in the U.S. The Brazilian Real is overvalued.

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what roles should hr professionals play in staffing decisions why

Answers

HR professionals play a crucial role in conducting job analyses, developing recruitment strategies, and promoting diversity and inclusion in staffing decisions.

Firstly, they are responsible for conducting thorough job analyses to identify the skills, qualifications, and experience required for each position. This ensures that the right candidates are recruited and hired, aligning with the organization's goals and needs.

Secondly, HR professionals are involved in developing effective recruitment strategies, which may include advertising job openings, leveraging professional networks, or partnering with recruitment agencies. They also manage the screening and selection process, reviewing resumes, conducting interviews, and assessing candidates to identify the most suitable individuals for the positions.

Moreover, HR professionals play a vital role in assessing and managing diversity and inclusion within the hiring process. They ensure fair and unbiased practices, promoting equal opportunities for all candidates and mitigating any potential biases or discrimination.

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under the second wave of the partial shield statute, a partner of a limited liability partnership (llp) would be unlimitedly liable for:

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Under the second wave of the partial shield statute, a partner of a limited liability partnership (LLP) would be unlimitedly liable for any wrongful act or omission committed by the partner, any other partner, or any employee of the LLP while acting within the ordinary course of the LLP's business or with the authority of the LLP.

This means that the partner would be personally responsible for any damages or losses resulting from such acts or omissions, even if they were not directly involved in the wrongdoing.The second wave of the partial shield statute, also known as the Revised Uniform Partnership Act (RUPA), was adopted by many states in the late 1990s and early 2000s to modernize and clarify partnership law. One of the key features of RUPA is the limited liability protection it provides to partners of LLPs and other types of partnerships.

Under RUPA, a partner of an LLP is generally shielded from personal liability for the debts, obligations, and liabilities of the partnership. This means that the partner's personal assets cannot be used to satisfy the partnership's obligations, except in certain limited circumstances.However, there are exceptions to this limited liability protection. One of these exceptions is the unlimited liability of partners for wrongful acts or omissions committed by the partnership or its employees. This means that if a partner, another partner, or an employee of the LLP commits a wrongful act or omission within the scope of the LLP's business or with the LLP's authority, the partner will be personally liable for any resulting damages or losses, even if they did not participate in or know about the wrongdoing.

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Intro You sold a put option with a strike price of $67 for $1.91. Part 1 1- Attempt 1/2 for 10 pts. At what stock price on the expiration date of the option will you break even?

Answers

If the stock price on the expiration date of the option is $65.09, you will break even.

When selling a put option, the break-even point is the stock price at which the seller neither makes a profit nor incurs a loss. To calculate the break-even point, we need to consider the strike price of the put option and the premium received from selling the option.

In this case, you sold a put option with a strike price of $67 and received a premium of $1.91. To break even, the stock price on the expiration date should be equal to the break-even price.

The break-even price can be calculated by subtracting the premium received from the strike price:

Break-even price = Strike price - Premium

Break-even price = $67 - $1.91

Break-even price = $65.09

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You are trying to decide between three mutually exclusive investment opportunities. The most appropriate tool for identifying the correct decision is:
a) NPV.
b) profitability index.
c) IRR.
d) incremental IRR.

Answers

Option (a), The most appropriate tool for identifying the correct decision among three mutually exclusive investment opportunities is the Net Present Value (NPV) method.

The NPV method takes into account the time value of money and provides an estimate of the value of the investment by calculating the present value of all expected future cash flows, including initial investment costs.

The other options are not as suitable. Profitability Index (PI) is a useful tool for ranking investment projects when there are budget constraints and limited resources. However, it does not provide an absolute measure of value and ignores the size of the investment.

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is another popular investment appraisal tool that calculates the discount rate at which the NPV of a project equals zero. While IRR is useful for comparing investments with different sizes, it assumes that the cash flows are reinvested at the same rate as the IRR, which may not be realistic.

Incremental IRR is a variation of the IRR method that compares the IRR of a new investment project with the IRR of an existing project. However, it does not consider the size of the investment or the timing of the cash flows.

Therefore, the NPV method remains the most appropriate tool for identifying the correct decision among three mutually exclusive investment opportunities as it provides an absolute measure of value, accounts for the time value of money, and considers all cash flows, including initial investment costs.

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View Policies Show Attempt History Current Attempt in Progress Marigold is an electronics components manufacturer. Information about the company's two products follows: AM-2 FM-9 Units produced 25,000 5,000 Direct labor hours required for production 12,500 15,000 Units per batch 5,000 500 Shipping weight per unit 0.50 lbs. 10 lbs. The company incurs $896,500 in overhead per year and has traditionally applied overhead on the basis of direct labor hours. (a) Your answer is correct. (i) How much overhead will be allocated to each product using the traditional direct labor hours allocation base? (Round per unit rates to 2 decimal places, e.g. 3.54 and final answers to O decimal places, e.g. 45,286.) AM-2 FM-9 $ 407,500 $ 489,000 Overhead allocated to each product (ii) What overhead cost per unit will be allocated to each product? (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25.) AM-2 FM-9 $ 16.30 $ Overhead cost per unit 97.80 eTextbook and Media (b) Attempts: unlimited (b) * Your answer is incorrect. Assume that Marigold has identified three activity cost pools. Pool Cost Cost Driver Assembly $632,500 Direct labor hours Setup 39,000 Number of setups (1 per batch) Packaging 225.000 Weight (i) Given these activity pools and cost drivers, how much overhead should be allocated to each product? (Round per unit rates to 2 decimal places, e.g. 3.54 and final answers to O decimal places, e.g. 45,286.) AM-2 FM-9 747,500 $ 509,750 $ Total allocated overhead (ii) What overhead cost per unit will be allocated to each product? (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25.) AM-2 FM-9 Overhead cost per unit

Answers

(a) Traditional Direct Labor Hours Allocation Base:

(i) Overhead allocated to each product using the traditional direct labor hours allocation base:

To allocate overhead based on direct labor hours, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate.

Predetermined Overhead Rate = Total Overhead / Total Direct Labor Hours

Total Overhead = $896,500

Total Direct Labor Hours = 12,500 (AM-2) + 15,000 (FM-9) = 27,500

Predetermined Overhead Rate = $896,500 / 27,500 = $32.51 per direct labor hour

Now, we can calculate the overhead allocated to each product:

AM-2: 12,500 direct labor hours × $32.51 per direct labor hour = $406,375

FM-9: 15,000 direct labor hours × $32.51 per direct labor hour = $487,650

Therefore, the overhead allocated to each product using the traditional direct labor hours allocation base is as follows:

AM-2: $406,375

FM-9: $487,650

(ii) Overhead cost per unit allocated to each product:

To calculate the overhead cost per unit, we need to divide the overhead allocated to each product by the number of units produced.

AM-2: $406,375 / 25,000 units = $16.25 per unit

FM-9: $487,650 / 5,000 units = $97.53 per unit

Therefore, the overhead cost per unit allocated to each product using the traditional direct labor hours allocation base is as follows:

AM-2: $16.25 per unit

FM-9: $97.53 per unit

(b) Activity Cost Pools Allocation:

(i) Overhead allocated to each product using activity cost pools and cost drivers:

Assembly Cost Pool:

AM-2: (12,500 direct labor hours / 27,500 total direct labor hours) × $632,500 = $289,772.73

FM-9: (15,000 direct labor hours / 27,500 total direct labor hours) × $632,500 = $342,727.27

Setup Cost Pool:

AM-2: (5,000 setups / 10 setups) × $39,000 = $19,500

FM-9: (500 setups / 10 setups) × $39,000 = $1,950

Packaging Cost Pool:

AM-2: (0.50 lbs. per unit / 10.50 lbs. total weight) × $225,000 = $10,714.29

FM-9: (10 lbs. per unit / 10.50 lbs. total weight) × $225,000 = $214,285.71

Total Allocated Overhead:

AM-2: $289,772.73 + $19,500 + $10,714.29 = $319,987.02

FM-9: $342,727.27 + $1,950 + $214,285.71 = $558,963.98

Therefore, the overhead allocated to each product using the activity cost pools and cost drivers is as follows:

AM-2: $319,987.02

FM-9: $558,963.98

(ii) Overhead cost per unit allocated to each product:

To calculate the overhead cost per unit, we need to divide the overhead allocated to each product by the number of units produced.

AM-2: $319,987.02 / 25,000 units = $12.80 per unit

FM-9: $558,963.98 / 5,000 units = $111.79 per unit

Therefore, the overhead cost per unit allocated to each product using the activity cost pools and cost drivers is as follows:

AM-2: $12.80 per unit

FM-9: $111.79 per unit

In conclusion, the overhead allocation differs when using traditional direct labor hours allocation base compared to activity cost pools and cost drivers. The allocation based on activity cost pools provides a more refined and accurate distribution of overhead costs based on the specific activities involved in producing each product.

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Which of the following statements concerning VA loans is true?
a. A VA loan can only be issued to a veteran of foreign war
b. A VA loan can be assumed by a nonveteran
c. There is no fixed interest rate; the lender and veteran can negotiate
d. A borrower would need to pay the difference between the amount of the VA appraisal of the house and the purchase price

Answers

The correct statement concerning VA loans is that b. A VA loan can be assumed by a nonveteran.

This means that if a veteran sells their home to a nonveteran, the nonveteran can take over the VA loan. Option a is false because while veterans are eligible for VA loans, they do not have to be veterans of foreign war. Option c is also false because VA loans do have fixed interest rates set by the lender and approved by the VA. Option d is partially true as the borrower may need to pay the difference between the VA appraisal and the purchase price, but this is only if the appraisal is lower than the purchase price and the lender does not agree to lend the full purchase price.

The other statements are not accurate representations of VA loan requirements or features.

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.Some states, including Texas, require a valid photo ID to vote. Which of the followings could be a possible implication of the law?
a. ID requirement can enhance women’s right in a way that is equivalent to Equal Rights Amendment.
b. ID requirement can be fiscally burdensome for local governments.
c. ID requirement can jeopardize a certain group of people’s right to vote.
d. ID requirement can discriminate against a minority group.

Answers

The possible implication of the law requiring a valid photo ID to vote, such as in Texas, is that it can jeopardize a certain group of people's right to vote (option c).

This is because not all citizens have access to or can afford to obtain a valid photo ID. Such requirements disproportionately affect low-income individuals, the elderly, people with disabilities, and racial or ethnic minorities, as they may face more barriers to obtaining an ID, such as lack of transportation, financial constraints, or limited access to necessary documentation.

By imposing this additional requirement, the law inadvertently creates a hurdle for these groups, making it more difficult for them to exercise their right to vote. This can result in unequal representation and affect the democratic process. Therefore, the valid photo ID requirement can be seen as jeopardizing the voting rights of certain groups of people, rather than promoting equal access to the voting process for all citizens. The correct option is c.

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Which of the following statements is/are a snapshot (may have more than one answer)? Check All That Apply.. a. Statement of Changes in Equity. b. Statement of Cash Flows. c. Income statement. d. Balance Sheet

Answers

The statements that are considered snapshots in financial reporting are the Balance Sheet and the Statement of Changes in Equity. The correct options are A and D.

A snapshot is a financial statement that captures the financial position of a company at a specific point in time. It provides a static view of the company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a given date. Two statements that fulfill this purpose are the Balance Sheet and the Statement of Changes in Equity.

The Balance Sheet presents the company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a particular date, usually the end of an accounting period. It provides a snapshot of what the company owns (assets), what it owes (liabilities), and the residual value attributable to shareholders (equity).

The Statement of Changes in Equity shows the changes in the company's equity during a specific period. It summarizes the effects of transactions such as net income, dividends, and additional investments on the company's equity accounts.

On the other hand, the Income Statement and the Statement of Cash Flows do not represent snapshots but rather reflect the company's financial performance and cash flows over a specific period of time. The Income Statement reports revenues, expenses, and net income or loss for a given period, while the Statement of Cash Flows shows the company's cash inflows and outflows during that period.

Therefore, the Balance Sheet and the Statement of Changes in Equity are the statements that provide snapshots of the company's financial position at a particular point in time.

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"In equilibrium, all investment opportunities must offer the
same reward-to-risk ratio." is this statement correct or
incorrect?

Answers

The statement "In equilibrium, all investment opportunities must offer the same reward-to-risk ratio" is incorrect.

In financial markets, equilibrium refers to a state where supply and demand are balanced, and prices are stable. While in equilibrium, different investment opportunities can have varying reward-to-risk ratios. Investors have different preferences for risk and return, and therefore, they may be willing to accept different reward-to-risk ratios for different investments. The reward-to-risk ratio depends on factors such as the expected return and the level of risk associated with a particular investment. Thus, in equilibrium, investment opportunities can have different reward-to-risk ratios based on market dynamics and investor preferences.

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A company's current stock price is $22.00 and its most recent dividend was $0.75 per share. Since analysts estimate the company will have a 12 percent growth rate, what is its expected return? a. 348 percent. b. 12.00 percent. c. 15.82 percent. d. 3.00 percent.

Answers

Answer:

The Expected return is C.

Explanation:

A company's Current stock price is $22.00. so, stock Price = $22.00.The most recent dividend was $0.75 per share.So, Dividend = $0.75.The company's Growth rate is 12 percent.So, Growth Rate = 12%Dividend Yield is the ratio of annual return on investment dividends received from a company's stock.DIvidend Yield =  Dividend / Stock price = $0.75 / $22.00 =0.034l = 3.82%.The Expected Return is the summation of the Dividend Yield and the Growth Rate.Expected Return = Dividend Yeild + Growth RateExpected return = 3.82% + 12% = 15.82%.

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If analysts estimate the company will have a 12 percent growth rate, then its expected return is d. 3.00 percent.

How to find?

To calculate the expected return, we need to use the dividend discount model (DDM). The DDM states that the value of a stock is the sum of all its future dividends discounted back to the present at a required rate of return. In this case, we know the current stock price and the most recent dividend, so we can use the formula:

Expected Return = (Dividend / Current Stock Price) + Growth Rate

Expected Return = ($0.75 / $22.00) + 0.12 = 0.0341 or 3.41%


This means that the expected return for this stock is 3%, which is lower than the estimated growth rate of 12%.

This could indicate that the stock is currently overvalued, or that the market expects the company to experience challenges in achieving its estimated growth rate.


Therefore, the answer is d. 3.00 percent (rounded to the nearest whole number).

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Which of the following is the most valid reason for choosing to undertake project M: Project M Project N Payback period 3.5 years 3.1 years Accounting rate of return 21% 1796 Net Present Value (NPV) £481,000 £385,000 Select one: O A. Project M has a longer payback period than Project N O B. Project M will yield the highest accounting rate of return O C. Project M will give rise to greater cash flows than project N OD. Project M will yield the highest NPV

Answers

The correct answer is D. Project M will yield the highest NPV.

The most valid reason for choosing to undertake Project M is that it has the highest Net Present Value (NPV) of £481,000, compared to Project N's £385,000. NPV takes into account the time value of money and is a more comprehensive indicator of a project's profitability than payback period or accounting rate of return.

Choosing a project based on the highest NPV is generally considered a sound decision because it reflects the net benefit or value that a project is expected to generate over its lifetime. A higher NPV suggests that the project's cash inflows are expected to exceed its cash outflows by a larger amount, resulting in greater overall profitability.

While other factors such as payback period and accounting rate of return may provide additional information, NPV is generally regarded as a more comprehensive and reliable measure for investment decision-making. It considers the timing and magnitude of cash flows, the cost of capital, and provides a basis for comparing different projects or investment alternatives.

Therefore, selecting Project M based on its highest NPV of £481,000 is a valid reason as it indicates the project's potential to generate greater profitability and value compared to Project N.

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current research indicates that the distribution of the life expectancies of a certain protozoan is normal with a mean of 41 days and a standard deviation of 10.6 days. find the probability that a simple random sample of 49 protozoa will have a mean life expectancy of 42 or more days. a) 0.5090 b) 0.4545 c) 0.2545 d) 0.5376 e) 0.7455 f) none of the above

Answers

The probability that a simple random sample of 49 protozoa will have a mean life expectancy of 42 or more days is 0.252.

Chance is represented by probability. The study of the occurrence of random events is the subject of this mathematical subfield. The value is expressed as a number from 0 to 1. Mathematicians have begun to use the concept of probability to predict the likelihood of certain events. The importance of likelihood is fundamentally the degree to which something is probably going to occur. This is the fundamental likelihood hypothesis, which is likewise utilized in the likelihood dispersion, where you will become familiar with the chance of results for an irregular examination. We must first know the total number of possible outcomes before we can determine the probability of a single event occurring.

Likelihood is a proportion of the probability of an occasion to happen. Numerous occurrences cannot be completely predicted. Using it, we can only predict the chance of an event happening, or how likely it is to happen. The probability of an event can range from 0 to 1, where 0 indicates that it is impossible to occur and 1 indicates that it will occur. For the students in Class 10, probability is an important topic that explains all of the fundamental ideas related to this subject. In a sample space, the probability of every event adds up to 1.

The probability is

P(x>47) = P((x-mean)/(s/vn) >(47-46)/(10.5/7))

=P(Z>0.667)=0.252

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hich of the following led most directly to the development of the trading network on the map? responses the growth of trading cities on the swahili coast the growth of trading cities on the swahili coast innovations in transportation and commercial technologies such as caravanserai innovations in transportation and commercial technologies such as caravanserai the overall decline in the trade of goods along the silk roads the overall decline in the trade of goods along the silk roads the emergence of the trans-atlantic slave trade in west africa

Answers

The growth of trading cities on the Swahili coast and innovations in transportation and commercial technologies such as caravanserai led most directly to the development of the trading network on the map.

The correct options that led most directly to the development of the trading network on the map are the growth of trading cities on the Swahili coast and innovations in transportation and commercial technologies such as caravanserai.

The growth of trading cities on the Swahili coast played a significant role in facilitating trade and establishing commercial networks. Cities such as Mombasa, Kilwa, and Zanzibar became important trading centers, connecting regions in East Africa with the Arabian Peninsula, Persia, India, and China. These trading cities served as hubs for the exchange of goods, ideas, and cultures, contributing to the development of the trading network.

Innovations in transportation and commercial technologies, such as caravanserai, also played a crucial role in fostering trade and facilitating long-distance commerce. Caravanserais were roadside inns or resting places along trade routes, providing accommodation, security, and facilities for traders and their caravans. These innovations improved travel efficiency, protected traders and their goods, and encouraged the growth of trade networks.

The overall decline in the trade of goods along the Silk Roads and the emergence of the trans-Atlantic slave trade in West Africa are not directly related to the development of the trading network depicted on the map.

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Companies are free to choose FIFO, LIFO, or weighted-average cost to report inventory and cost of goods sold. True False

Answers

True. Companies are free to choose between FIFO, LIFO, or weighted-average cost methods to report inventory and cost of goods sold. However, they must consistently apply the chosen method and disclose it in their financial statements.

Companies have the option to choose between three methods to report inventory and cost of goods sold - FIFO (First-In, First-Out), LIFO (Last-In, First-Out), and weighted-average cost. The choice of method depends on factors such as the nature of the company's operations, the type of inventory it carries, and tax considerations. Therefore, it is true that companies are free to choose one of these methods.

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Chandler and Ross were both attending New York University together and were roommates. Ross had a fascination with dinosaurs and wanted to become a paleontologist. Chandler was unsure of what career he wanted and decided to try taking some finance courses. One day, while Chandler and Ross were both in classes, Chandler was in his finance class and Ross was in his biology class, campus security entered their dorm room and searched it Campus security even searched through their closet and drawers. When Ross returned to his room that afternoon around 1.00pm, he discovered what had happened. He immediately called Chandler to let him know what had occurred. Ross then went to Henry Helpful, the dorm's senior resident and complained. Henry told Ross that the university had a right to search the room because it was the university's property and that neither he nor Chandler had any right of privacy Do you agree/disagree with Henry Helpfuls statements and why? Does the U.S. Constitution expressly grant Ross and Chandler the right to privacy and if so, which Amendment(s) provide them that right?

Answers

Henry Helpful's statement on the university's search rights and Ross and Chandler's privacy is uncertain; the specific amendments regarding privacy require further consideration.

The Fourth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures conducted by the government. However, it is important to note that the Fourth Amendment generally applies to searches conducted by law enforcement or government officials, and not necessarily to private entities such as universities.

In the given scenario, the dorm room is university property, and the search was conducted by campus security, which is likely a part of the university. In this context, it becomes a matter of whether the university is considered a government entity or acting as an agent of the government. If the university is deemed a government entity, the Fourth Amendment may apply, and Ross and Chandler would have a reasonable expectation of privacy in their dorm room.

However, if the university is considered a private entity, the Fourth Amendment may not directly apply, and the university may have the authority to search the dorm room based on its own policies and regulations.

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the law of supply states that group of answer choices an increase in price of the product leads to a decrease in quantity supplied an increase in price of the product leads to a decrease in quantity supplied, other things equal an increase in price of the product leads to an increase in quantity supplied an increase in price of the product leads to an increase in quantity supplied, other things equal

Answers

The correct answer is: "an increase in price of the product leads to an increase in quantity supplied, other things equal."

The law of supply states that, ceteris paribus (all other factors being equal), an increase in the price of a product will lead to an increase in the quantity supplied. This means that as the price of a product rises, producers are willing and able to supply more of that product to the market.The logic behind this relationship is based on the profit motive of producers. When the price of a product increases, producers can earn higher profits by selling more units. This creates an incentive for them to increase their production and supply more of the product to the market. Higher prices can cover the additional costs associated with producing and supplying more units, allowing producers to increase their profits. However, it's important to note that the law of supply assumes that all other factors affecting supply, such as input prices, technology, and government regulations, remain constant. Changes in these factors can influence the supply curve and alter the relationship between price and quantity supplied. In summary, the law of supply indicates that there is a positive relationship between the price of a product and the quantity supplied by producers, assuming all other factors remain unchanged.

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Grading Rubric FIN424 Project Report "Project based learning Project Member(s) & Sections: Description Points Grade Comments Category Business Description 2 Industry Overview The report should begin w

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Based on the information provided, it seems that the grading rubric for the FIN424 project report consists of two categories: Business Description and Industry Overview.

The Business Description section carries 2 points and should provide a description of the project and its members. The Industry Overview category is not fully described in the given text. Please provide the remaining information regarding the grading criteria for the Industry Overview section, and any other categories or sections that are part of the rubric.I apologize, but it seems like the rest of the grading rubric for the FIN424 project report is cut off. Could you please provide the complete rubric so that I can assist you further

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Madrid Company has provided the following data (ignore income taxes):
2014 revenues were $77,500.
2014 net income was $33,900.
Dividends declared and paid during 2014 totaled $5,700. Total assets at December 31, 2014 were $217,000. Total stockholders' equity at December 31, 2014 was $123,000. Retained earnings at December 31, 2014 were $83,000.
Which of the following is not correct? a.2014 expenses were $43,600.
b.Total liabilities at December 31, 2014 were $94,000.
c.Retained earnings increased $33,900 during 2014.
d.Common stock at December 31, 2014 was $40,000.

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The incorrect statement is a. 2014 expenses were $43,600. To calculate expenses, we need to know the net income and any changes in retained earnings.

However, we only have the net income and retained earnings at the end of the year, not the beginning. Therefore, we cannot calculate the expenses for the year.
b. Total liabilities at December 31, 2014 were $94,000 is a possible statement, but we do not have enough information to confirm or deny it. c. Retained earnings increased $33,900 during 2014 is a correct statement based on the data given. d. Common stock at December 31, 2014 was $40,000 is a possible statement, but we do not have enough information to confirm or deny it.
In summary, the statement that cannot be determined from the data given is a. 2014 expenses were $43,600.

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The greater the debt the greater the financial leverage True/false

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True. The greater the debt a company has, the greater its financial leverage.

Financial leverage refers to the use of debt to finance investments or operations. When a company has a higher level of debt, it means it has borrowed more funds to support its activities. This can amplify the potential returns on investments but also increases the risk. By using debt, companies can increase their financial leverage and potentially achieve higher profitability. However, it is important to note that excessive debt can also increase financial risk and make a company more vulnerable to economic downturns or changes in interest rates. Therefore, careful management of debt levels is crucial for maintaining a healthy financial position.

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Given the following information, calculate the effective monthly rent payment (annual rent based on monthly payments at the start of each month). Lease Term: 10 years, Concession: 9 months free rent inside the term of the lease, Rental Space: 7,500 square feet (SF), Rental Rate: $37.50 per SF per year, Landlord's discount rate: 7.5%

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The effective monthly rent payment, based on the annual rent with the concession, is approximately $21,679.69.

To calculate the effective monthly rent payment, we need to consider the concession of 9 months of free rent within the 10-year lease term.

First, let's calculate the total annual rent without considering the concession:

Annual Rent = Rental Space * Rental Rate

Annual Rent = 7,500 SF * $37.50/SF/year

Annual Rent = $281,250

Next, let's calculate the value of the 9 months of free rent:

Value of Free Rent = Annual Rent * (Concession Months / Total Lease Months)

Value of Free Rent = $281,250 * (9 / 120) [since there are 12 months in a year]

Value of Free Rent = $21,093.75

Now, let's calculate the effective annual rent after considering the concession:

Effective Annual Rent = Annual Rent - Value of Free Rent

Effective Annual Rent = $281,250 - $21,093.75

Effective Annual Rent = $260,156.25

Finally, let's calculate the effective monthly rent payment:

Effective Monthly Rent = Effective Annual Rent / 12

Effective Monthly Rent = $260,156.25 / 12

Effective Monthly Rent ≈ $21,679.69

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FILL THE BLANK. an increase to rich's farm's account called barry rich, capital would occur when ______.

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Barry Rich invests more money into the farm

Cochran Enterprises has sales of 900 000 $. The company initially invested in a packaging system with a cost of $735,000. This cost will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project’s 7-year life. The pretax operating costs are $215,000 per year, and the system requires an initial investment in net working capital of $67,000. If the tax rate is 36% and the discount rate is 8%, what is the project’s Year 1 free cash flow? Round up your answer to the nearest whole number.

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Based on the given information, the project's Year 1 free cash flow can be calculated as follows:

- Depreciation expense = Cost of packaging system / Project life = $735,000 / 7 = $105,000 per year
- Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = Sales - Operating costs - Depreciation expense = $900,000 - $215,000 - $105,000 = $580,000
- Taxes = EBIT * Tax rate = $580,000 * 0.36 = $208,800
- Net income = EBIT - Taxes = $580,000 - $208,800 = $371,200
- Free cash flow = Net income + Depreciation expense - Increase in net working capital = $371,200 + $105,000 - $67,000 = $409,200

Rounding this up to the nearest whole number, the project's Year 1 free cash flow is $409,200.

"Rounding up to the nearest whole number, the project's Year 1 free cash flow is approximately $371,200."

To calculate the project's Year 1 free cash flow, we need to consider the revenue, operating costs, depreciation, taxes, and changes in net working capital.

From question-

Sales = $900,000

Pretax operating costs = $215,000

Depreciation = Straight-line over 7 years

Initial investment in net working capital = $67,000

Tax rate = 36%

Discount rate = 8%

Let's calculate each component step by step:

1. Revenue:

Year 1 revenue = Sales = $900,000

2. Operating costs:

Year 1 operating costs = $215,000

3. Depreciation:

Since the cost is depreciated straight-line to zero over 7 years, the annual depreciation expense is:

Depreciation expense = Initial cost / Useful life

Depreciation expense = $735,000 / 7 years

Depreciation expense = $105,000

4. Taxes:

Taxable income = Revenue - Operating costs - Depreciation

Taxable income = $900,000 - $215,000 - $105,000

Taxable income = $580,000

Taxes = Taxable income * Tax rate

Taxes = $580,000 * 0.36

Taxes = $208,800

5. Changes in net working capital:

No information is provided regarding changes in net working capital for Year 1. Therefore, we assume there are no changes, which means the net working capital remains the same.

6. Free Cash Flow (FCF):

FCF = Revenue - Operating costs - Taxes - Depreciation ± Changes in net working capital

FCF = $900,000 - $215,000 - $208,800 - $105,000

FCF = $371,200

Rounding up to the nearest whole number, the project's Year 1 free cash flow is approximately $371,200.

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a company has total assets of 250,000 AED and total liability of 500,000 AED, how can this information be interpreted in terms of financial ration?

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The given information about total assets and total liabilities suggests that the company has a debt-to-assets ratio of 2, indicating a relatively high level of leverage. Furthermore, the negative equity ratio implies that the company's liabilities exceed its assets, which may indicate financial difficulties.

A company's total assets and total liabilities can be used to calculate financial ratios that provide insights into the company's financial health and leverage.

One commonly used ratio is the debt-to-assets ratio, which is calculated by dividing total liabilities by total assets. In this case, the debt-to-assets ratio would be 500,000 AED divided by 250,000 AED, resulting in a ratio of 2. This means that for every 1 AED of assets, the company has 2 AED of liabilities. A higher debt-to-assets ratio indicates a higher degree of leverage or reliance on borrowed funds.

Additionally, the information can be used to calculate the equity ratio, which represents the proportion of the company's assets financed by equity. The equity ratio is calculated by dividing total equity by total assets. In this case, the equity ratio would be (Total Assets - Total Liabilities) divided by Total Assets. However, since the total liabilities (500,000 AED) exceeds the total assets (250,000 AED), the company has negative equity, indicating that the liabilities exceed the value of the assets.

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sellers in which of the following market structures are likely to have the highest market power? group of answer choices monopoly monopolistic competition perfect competition oligopoly

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Sellers in monopoly market structures are likely to have the highest market power. Thus, option A is the correct option.

When one company dominates the market as a whole, a monopoly is present. The company and the sector are the same. There are no close replacements for the product that this company is the exclusive manufacturer of. The company has the most market power since there are no alternatives.

As a result, monopolists frequently decrease output, raise prices, and profit more. In a pure monopoly, entry and exit are prohibited. Public utilities and professional sports leagues are two of the clearest instances of pure monopolies that demonstrate how this might happen for several reasons.

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Three of these statements reflect payday loans. Choose the other statement, which is aligned with a traditional bank loan instead.
a. Easy to obtain without a lot of paperwork
b. Requires a credit check and suitably high credit score
c. Requires payment in full in less than a month
d. APR can easily be over 200%

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The statement aligned with a traditional bank loan is b. Requires a credit check and suitably high credit score.

Traditional bank loans typically involve a thorough credit evaluation process, where the borrower's credit history, income, and other factors are assessed. A good credit score and creditworthiness are often required to qualify for a bank loan. Payday loans, on the other hand, are short-term loans that are usually easy to obtain without a lot of paperwork (statement a), require payment in full in less than a month (statement c), and often have high annual percentage rates (APRs) that can easily be over 200% (statement d).

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XYZ Co is evaluating to replace the existing two year old computers that cost $40 million with an original life of 5 years. The cost of the new computers is $90 million. The new computers will be depreciated to zero book value using straight-line over 3 years. The existing computers has a salvage value of million and a book value of $24 million. The new computers will reduce operating expenses by $35 million a year. The new computers will have a salvage value of $8 million and a book value of zero in three years. a. Determine the initial cash flow of the investment. b. Determine the operating cash flows of the investment for the next three years. c. Determine the terminal cash flow of the investment d. Should this replacement be taken (you may either use Net Present Value technique or Internal Rate of Return technique)? Explain. Use the weighted average cost of capital from question 3 when making your decision. (Note: If you do not know how to find the weighted average cost of capital, just use 10% as the cost of capital.)

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Based on the NPV calculation using a 10% WACC, the initial cash flow is $66 million, the operating cash flows over the next three years total $105 million, and the terminal cash flow is $8 million. Since the NPV is positive, the replacement should be taken as it adds value to the company.

To determine whether XYZ Co should replace its existing computers with the new ones, we need to calculate the initial cash flow, operating cash flows for the next three years, and the terminal cash flow. We can then evaluate the investment using the Net Present Value (NPV) technique.

a. Initial Cash Flow:

The initial cash flow includes the cost of the new computers and the salvage value of the existing computers:

Initial cash flow = Cost of new computers - Salvage value of existing computers

                 = $90 million - $24 million

                 = $66 million

b. Operating Cash Flows:

The operating cash flows include the annual reduction in operating expenses due to the new computers. Over the next three years, the cash flows are as follows:

Year 1: $35 million

Year 2: $35 million

Year 3: $35 million

c. Terminal Cash Flow:

At the end of three years, the new computers will have a salvage value of $8 million, which will be the terminal cash flow.

d. Net Present Value (NPV) Calculation:

To determine whether the replacement should be taken, we calculate the NPV by discounting the cash flows at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Let's assume the WACC is 10%.

NPV = Initial cash flow + (Operating cash flows / (1 + WACC)^t) + Terminal cash flow / (1 + WACC)^3

    = $66 million + ($35 million / (1 + 0.10)^1) + ($35 million / (1 + 0.10)^2) + ($35 million / (1 + 0.10)^3) + ($8 million / (1 + 0.10)^3)

If the NPV is positive, the investment should be taken as it adds value. If the NPV is negative, the investment should be rejected.

After calculating the NPV, if it is positive, it means that the replacement of computers generates more value than the cost of the investment. If it is negative, it means the investment would not generate sufficient value and should be rejected.

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Chose a brand and outline the tools and frameworks that can be used to analyse their performance environment
and potential growth strategies. Please in detailed and with examples.

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The brand that I have chosen is Nike. To analyze their performance environment and potential growth strategies, the tools and frameworks that can be used are PESTLE analysis, SWOT analysis, Ansoff's matrix, and Porter's five forces analysis.

PESTLE analysis is used to identify the political, economic, social, technological, legal, and environmental factors that could affect Nike's business. For example, the increasing focus on sustainable practices and the rise of e-commerce are two factors that could impact Nike's operationSWOT analysis helps to identify the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of Nike. For instance, Nike's strong brand recognition and innovative products are strengths, while the reliance on a few key markets and the threat of counterfeit products are weaknesses.Ansoff's matrix is used to identify potential growth strategies for Nike. For example, Nike could focus on market penetration by increasing sales in existing markets, or market development by expanding into new markets.

They could also pursue product development by introducing new products or diversification by entering new industries. Finally, Porter's five forces analysis helps to identify the competitive forces in the industry. For example, the threat of new entrants, bargaining power of suppliers and buyers, threat of substitutes, and intensity of rivalry among competitors.Overall, these tools and frameworks can help Nike to understand their performance environment and potential growth strategies.

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When audited financial statements are presented in a document (e.g., annual report).containingother information, the auditor
A. Should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with the auditedfinancial statements.
B. Has no responsibility for the other information because it is not part of the basic financialstatements.
C. Has an obligation to perform auditing procedures to corroborate the other information.
D. Is required to express a qualified opinion if the other information has a material misstatement offact.

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The correct answer is A. The auditor should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with the audited financial statements.

When the audited financial statements are presented in a document containing other information, the auditor should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with the audited financial statements. If the auditor identifies a material inconsistency, the auditor should determine whether the inconsistency is due to fraud or error. If the inconsistency is due to fraud or error, the auditor should consider its effect on the audit report.The auditor has no responsibility for the other information because it is not part of the basic financial statements. However, if the auditor becomes aware of a material misstatement in the other information, the auditor should bring the matter to the attention of management, and request that the matter be addressed. If management refuses to address the matter, the auditor should take appropriate action to protect the public interest.The auditor does not have an obligation to perform auditing procedures to corroborate the other information. However, if the auditor identifies a material inconsistency between the other information and the audited financial statements, the auditor should determine whether additional auditing procedures are necessary to address the inconsistency.The auditor is not required to express a qualified opinion if the other information has a material misstatement of fact. However, if the auditor identifies a material inconsistency between the other information and the audited financial statements, the auditor should determine whether the inconsistency is material to the financial statements as a whole. If the inconsistency is material to the financial statements as a whole, the auditor should modify the audit report to reflect the inconsistency.

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a company has just paid a dividend of 4.54$. its discount rate is 10.2%, and the expected perpetual growth rate is 5.1%. what is the stock's capital gain yield?

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If company has just paid a dividend of 4.54$. its discount rate is 10.2%, and the expected perpetual growth rate is 5.1% then the he stock's capital gain yield is 4.9%.

The capital gain yield refers to the rate of increase in the stock's price over time. It can be calculated using the formula:

Capital Gain Yield = Expected Perpetual Growth Rate / Discount Rate

In this case, the expected perpetual growth rate is 5.1% and the discount rate is 10.2%. Plugging in the values, we have:

Capital Gain Yield = 5.1% / 10.2% = 0.5

Multiplying by 100 to express it as a percentage, we find that the stock's capital gain yield is 4.9%.

The capital gain yield indicates the expected rate of increase in the stock's price, which is influenced by factors such as the company's growth prospects, market conditions, and investor sentiment. It represents the portion of the stock's total return that comes from capital appreciation. In this case, with a capital gain yield of 4.9%, investors can anticipate a growth in the stock's price of approximately 4.9% based on the expected perpetual growth rate and the discount rate.

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