low-cost leadership is one of the four basic competitive strategies.

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Answer 1

True. Low-cost leadership is indeed one of the four basic competitive strategies. It involves offering products or services at a lower cost compared to competitors while maintaining acceptable quality.

This strategy aims to attract price-sensitive customers and gain a competitive advantage through cost efficiency. By minimizing production and operational costs, companies can price their offerings competitively and potentially capture a larger market share. However, it's important to note that low-cost leadership requires careful management of costs, operational excellence, and continuous improvement to sustain profitability and fend off competition.

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Splish Brothers Inc Borrows $86,400 On July 1 From The Bank By Signing A $86,400.10% 1 Year Note payable a) Prepare the journal entry to record the proceeds of the note(Credit account titles are automatically identified when amount is entered)
b) Prepare the journal entry to record the accrued interest at December 31, assuming adjusting entries are made only at the end of year.(Credit account titles are automatically identified when amount is entered)

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a) The journal entry to record the proceeds of the note would be as follows:

Date Account Debit CreditJuly 1 Cash $86,400Notes Payable $86,400The Cash account is debited to increase the cash balance, and the Notes Payable account is credited to record the borrowing of $86,400.b) The journal entry to record the accrued interest at December 31 would be as follows:Date Account Debit CreditDecember 31 Interest Expense $86 Interest Payable $860The Interest Expense account is debited to recognize the expense incurred for the accrued interest, and the Interest Payable account is credited to record the liability for the accrued interest that is yet to be paid.

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Tonya Jefferson, a sole proprietor, runs a successful lobbying business in Washington, D.C. She doesn't sell many business assets, but she is planning on retiring and selling her historic townhouse, from which she runs her business in order to buy a place somewhere sunny and warm. Tonya's townhouse is worth $1,000,000 and the land is worth another $1,000,000. The original basis in the townhouse was $600,000, and she has claimed $250,000 of depreciation deductions against the asset over the years. The original basis in the land was $500,000. Tonya has located a buyer that would like to finalize the transaction in December of the current year. Tonya's marginal ordinary income tax rate is 35 percent.
a-1. What amount of gain or loss does Tonya recognize on the sale? What is the character of the gain or loss?
- $900,000 Unrecaptured 1250 and 250,000 other 1231 gain
- $250,000 Unrecaptured 1250 and 900,000 other 1231 gain
- 1,150,000 Unrecaptured 1250
a-3. What effect does the gain or loss have on her tax liability or (tax savings)?
Tax
A tax may be defined as an involuntary contribution from individuals or corporations as required by law, to raise revenue for the functioning of the public and government of a state. Individuals pay their tax based on ability to pay.

Answers

Tonya recognizes a gain of $900,000 on the sale of her townhouse. The character of the gain is $250,000 of unrecaptured 1250 gain and $650,000 of other 1231 gain.

To calculate the gain or loss recognized on the sale, we need to compare the selling price to the adjusted basis of the property.

Selling price of the townhouse: $1,000,000

Selling price of the land: $1,000,000

Adjusted basis of the townhouse:

Original basis: $600,000

Depreciation deductions: $250,000

Adjusted basis: $600,000 - $250,000 = $350,000

Adjusted basis of the land: $500,000

Total adjusted basis of the property (townhouse + land): $350,000 + $500,000 = $850,000

Gain on the sale: Selling price - Adjusted basis = ($1,000,000 + $1,000,000) - $850,000 = $1,150,000

Now, we need to determine the character of the gain. Since the property being sold is real property used in a trade or business, we look at two categories of gain: unrecaptured 1250 gain and other 1231 gain.

Unrecaptured 1250 gain:

This refers to the portion of the gain attributable to the depreciation deductions claimed on the property. In this case, Tonya has claimed $250,000 of depreciation deductions against the townhouse. Therefore, the unrecaptured 1250 gain is $250,000.

Other 1231 gain:

This represents the remaining gain on the sale of the property after considering the depreciation deductions. In this case, the other 1231 gain is calculated as follows:

Total gain - Unrecaptured 1250 gain = $1,150,000 - $250,000 = $900,000

Tonya recognizes a gain of $900,000 on the sale of her townhouse. The character of the gain is $250,000 of unrecaptured 1250 gain and $900,000 of other 1231 gain.

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Data table 1 2 3 Selling price 4 Costs 5 Direct material Variable direct manufacturing 6 labor 7 Variable manufacturing overhead 8 Fixed manufacturing overhead* 9 Marketing (all variable) 10 Total costs $ 11 Operating income 12 *Allocated on the basis of machine-hours Print Done A B Per Unit C 2.00 $ - Model 9 Model 14 $ 95.00 $ 110.00 27.00 20.00 12.00 23.00 24.00 12.00 11.00 5.50 19.00 6.00 93.00 66.50 43.50 X ← unit and the contribution margin per machine hour for each machine. (Reduce the fixed the contribution margin per machine hour. Example: 8:4 would be 2:1. Enter the amounts to the X Requirements Which product should the company produce? Briefly explain your answer. Print Done our. hs. Body Time, Inc., produces two basic types of weight-lifting equipment, Model 9 and Model 14. Pertinent data are as follows: (Click the icon to view the data.) The weight-lifting craze suggests that Body Time can sell enough of either Model 9 or Model 14 to keep the plant operating at full capacity. Both products are processed through the same production departments. Read the requirements. Before determining which products to produce, let's calculate the contribution margin per unit and the contribution margin per machine hour for each machine. (Reduce the fixed manufacturing overhead to the lowest possible ratio of machine hours in order to calculate the contribution margin per machine hour. Example: 8:4 would be 2:1. Enter the amounts to the nearest cent.) Model 9 Model 14 Contribution margin per unit Contribution margin per machine hour Body Time, Inc. should produce: O A. Model 9, since this model results in the higher operating income per unit. O B. Model 9, since this model results in the higher contribution margin per unit. O C. Model 14, since this model results in the higher contribution margin per machine hour. OD. Both Model 9 and Model 14 since both models provide positive contribution margins.

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Based on the provided data, let's calculate the contribution margin per unit and the contribution margin per machine hour for each machine:

Model 9:

Selling price: $95.00

Total costs: $66.50

Contribution margin per unit: Selling price - Total costs = $95.00 - $66.50 = $28.50

Model 14:

Selling price: $110.00

Total costs: $43.50

Contribution margin per unit: Selling price - Total costs = $110.00 - $43.50 = $66.50

To calculate the contribution margin per machine hour, we need to reduce the fixed manufacturing overhead to the lowest possible ratio of machine hours. However, the provided data doesn't include the machine hours for each model. Without this information, we cannot determine the contribution margin per machine hour for each model.

Given the information provided, we can conclude that Body Time, Inc. should produce both Model 9 and Model 14 since both models provide positive contribution margins. However, we cannot determine which model would result in higher contribution margin per machine hour without the necessary data.

In summary, based on the available information, the company should produce both Model 9 and Model 14 to maximize profitability, as both models generate positive contribution margins. So option D is the correct answer. However, without the specific machine hours, we cannot determine which model has a higher contribution margin per machine hour.

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EACH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS REQUIRES EITHER A SHORT ANSWER OR A "YES" OR "NO" ANSWER, FOLLOWED BY ONLY A SHORT, ONE OR TWO SENTENCE, EXPLANATION.
(a) Adam enters into a franchise agreement with Beta Computers, Inc., in which Beta requires Adam to set up his store in a particular location.
(i) (2 points) Is this provision lawful? Why or why not?
(ii) (2 points) Suppose that Beta desired to grant additional franchises in the same territory. What could Adam have done to ensure that Beta was restricted from doing so?
(iii) (2 points) Suppose that Beta desired to open a corporate-owned store in the same territory. What implied provision of the franchise agreement might prevent Beta from doing so?
(b) Tina buys a Sports Grill franchise.
(i) (2 points) Sports Grill requires that all owners of the franchises buy products for every phase of their operations directly from Sports Grill. Is this requirement lawful? Why or why not?
(ii) (2 points) Sports Grill also requires that all owners of the franchises charge the same prices for their food. Is this lawful? Why or why not?
(c) Diners Coffee Shops, Inc. sells franchises and imposes on all franchise owners various standardized rules regarding not only their operations but also their personnel hiring, firing, and training practices. There was recently a complaint filed by an employee of the Diners franchise restaurant located in Monrovia. Specifically, after several incidents of racist comments and conduct by the assistant manager at the Monrovia restaurant, Sharon, a counterperson at that restaurant, resigned and brought a lawsuit for racial harassment.
(i) (3 points) Can Diners Coffee Shops, Inc. be held liable for racial harassment under these circumstances? Why or why not?
(ii) (2 points) Suppose that Diners desires to terminate the franchise under these circumstances. What is the general legal requirement for termination under most franchise agreements?

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The general legal requirement for termination under most franchise agreements is that the franchisor must show good cause for termination.

These provisions typically specify the conditions under which termination can occur, such as breaches of the agreement or failure to meet performance standards. It is important for the franchisor to ensure that the termination is justified based on the terms of the agreement and any applicable laws or regulations. The specific details of the termination process may vary depending on the terms of the franchise agreement and the jurisdiction in which the agreement is enforced.

When the other party commits a "material breach" of the contract, suspend performance under the agreement. If a material breach has occurred and has not been resolved within a reasonable amount of time after a request for resolution has been made, the agreement can be terminated.

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Dr. Jake is well known for his excellent diagnoses of skin-related problems. The other dermatologists in the hospital where he works often consult him when dealing with difficult cases. This gives Dr. Jake _____ power in the hospital.
A. coercive
B. structural
C. reward
D. referent
E. expert

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The term that best fits the scenario presented is E. expert power. Expert power is the ability to influence others through knowledge, skills, or expertise in a specific area. Dr. Jake is highly respected and sought after by his peers due to his exceptional ability to diagnose skin-related problems. The other dermatologists in the hospital recognize his expertise and consult him when they encounter difficult cases.

This gives Dr. Jake significant influence within the hospital and enhances his reputation as a leading authority in dermatology. Unlike coercive power, which is based on the ability to punish or threaten others, or reward power, which is based on the ability to provide incentives or benefits, expert power is based on knowledge and competence.

As such, it is a highly desirable form of power that can be used to inspire and motivate others to achieve their goals and objectives.

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For each of the following specific audit procedures, indicate the type of audit procedure(s) it represents: (1) inspection of records or documents, (2) inspection of tangible assets, (3) observation, (4) inquiry, (5) confirmation, (6) recalculation, (7) reperformance, (8) analytical procedures, (9) scanning, (1/7), and (9/7).
a. Sending a written request to the client's customers requesting that they report the amount owed to the client.
b. Examining large sales invoices for a period of two days before and after year-end to determine if sales are recorded in the proper period.
c. Agreeing the total of the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable general ledger account.
d. Discussing the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts with the credit manager.
e. Comparing the current-year gross profit percentage with the gross profit percentage for the last four years.

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We can see here that indicating the type of audit procedure(s) one represents, we have:

a. Confirmation - Sending a written request to the client's customers requesting that they report the amount owed to the client.

b. Inspection of records or documents - Examining large sales invoices for a period of two days before and after year-end to determine if sales are recorded in the proper period.

What is auditing?

In order to ensure their accuracy, integrity, and compliance with relevant laws, regulations, and accounting standards, financial statements, records, documents, and other pertinent information of an organization are subjected to a systematic examination, analysis, and evaluation process known as auditing.

Others include:

c. Reperformance - Agreeing the total of the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable general ledger account.

d. Inquiry - Discussing the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts with the credit manager.

e. Analytical procedures - Comparing the current-year gross profit percentage with the gross profit percentage for the last four years.

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Suppose the FED realizes that growth is slowing, but internal disagreements about how to interpret the available data and the extent of the economic decline delay any action. The statement refers to a. The information lag The decision lag b.The implementation lag c. The multiplier lag

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Information Lag: This refers to the delay in obtaining and processing relevant information needed to make informed decisions.

In the given statement, it implies that there may be a delay in collecting and analyzing data related to the slowing growth, causing a lag in obtaining accurate information about the current economic situation.

Decision Lag: This lag occurs when there are disagreements or delays in reaching a consensus among policymakers regarding the appropriate course of action. In the provided statement, internal disagreements about interpreting the available data and the extent of the economic decline are causing a delay in making decisions on how to address the slowing growth.

Implementation Lag: This lag refers to the time it takes to put decisions into action once they have been made. In the given scenario, the delay in taking action due to internal disagreements is causing a delay in implementing the chosen policies or measures to address the slowing growth.

Multiplier Lag: The multiplier lag refers to the time it takes for the effects of policy actions to fully manifest in the economy . When policy measures are implemented, it often takes time for their impact to ripple through the various sectors of the economy and produce observable results. However, the given statement does not directly relate to the multiplier lag.

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Calculate the price of the following corporate bond with a credit rating of BBB+ / Baa+: $10,000 par value, 8% semi-annual pay coupon, 8.25% yield to maturity and 5 years to maturity.
Assume that the next morning, the bond credit rating changes to A-/A- and the new yield to maturity becomes 8.04%. What is the price of the bond after this change? [From the prior problem: Calculate the price of the following corporate bond with a credit rating of BBB+ / Baa+: $10,000 par value, 8% semi-annual pay coupon, 8.25% yield to maturity and 5 years to maturity.}

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The price of the corporate bond after the change in credit rating and yield to maturity, based on the present value of cash flows formula will be  $8,247.85.

   Par value: $10,000

   Coupon rate: 8% (semi-annual pay coupon)

   Yield to maturity before the change: 8.25%

   Yield to maturity after the change: 8.04%

   Time to maturity: 5 years

First, we need to calculate the coupon payment. Since the coupon is paid semi-annually, we divide the annual coupon rate by 2:

Coupon payment = (Coupon rate / 2) * Par value

Coupon payment = (0.08 / 2) * $10,000

Coupon payment = $400

Next, we calculate the present value of the coupon payments. Since the coupon payments are semi-annual, we divide the yield to maturity by 2:

Present value of coupon payments = Coupon payment * [1 - (1 + Yield to maturity / 2)[tex]^{(-2 * Time to maturity)}[/tex]] / (Yield to maturity / 2)

Present value of coupon payments = $400 * [1 - (1 + 0.0825 / 2)[tex]^{(-2 * 5)}[/tex]] / (0.0825 / 2)

Now, we calculate the present value of the par value at maturity:

Present value of par value = Par value / (1 + Yield to maturity / 2)[tex]^{(2 * Time to maturity)}[/tex]

Present value of par value = $10,000 / (1 + 0.0825 / 2)[tex]^{(2 * 5)}[/tex]

Finally, we sum the present values of the coupon payments and the par value at maturity to get the price of the bond after the change:

Bond price = Present value of coupon payments + Present value of par value

Performing the calculations:

Present value of coupon payments = $400 * [1 - (1 + 0.0825 / 2)[tex]^{(-2 * 5)}[/tex]] / (0.0825 / 2) ≈ $1,899.66

Present value of par value = $10,000 / (1 + 0.0825 / 2)[tex]^{(2 * 5)}[/tex] ≈ $6,348.19

Bond price = $1,899.66 + $6,348.19 ≈ $8,247.85

Therefore, the price of the bond after the change in credit rating and yield to maturity is approximately $8,247.85.

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sally received $66,600 of compensation from her employer and she received $450 of interest from a corporate bond. what is the amount of sally's gross income from these items?

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The amount of Sally's gross income from these items is $67,050. Gross income represents the total income earned by an individual before any deductions or taxes are applied.

In this case, Sally received $66,600 of compensation from her employer, which includes her salary, wages, and any other forms of taxable income provided by her employer. This amount contributes to her gross income. Additionally, Sally received $450 of interest from a corporate bond, which is another source of income that adds to her gross income.

To calculate the gross income, we simply add up the compensation and interest:

$66,600 + $450 = $67,050

It's important to note that gross income includes all taxable income earned by an individual, such as wages, salaries, tips, interest, dividends, rental income, and other sources. However, it does not take into account any deductions or exemptions that might reduce the taxable income. Gross income serves as a starting point for determining an individual's tax liability and is used to calculate various taxes and contributions based on the applicable tax laws and regulations.

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jill enters into a contract to buy a certain building from kim. at the closing, kim refuses to transfer title. in a suit for breach, jill should seek specific performance to

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In a situation where Jill enters into a contract with Kim to buy a certain building, but Kim refuses to transfer the title at the closing, Jill can seek specific performance as a remedy in a breach of contract lawsuit.

Specific performance is an equitable remedy that aims to enforce the contractual terms by compelling the breaching party (Kim) to fulfill their obligations as agreed upon in the contract.

By seeking specific performance, Jill is essentially asking the court to order Kim to complete the transfer of title and perform their contractual duty of transferring the building. This remedy is often pursued in cases involving unique or valuable assets like real estate , where monetary damages may not adequately compensate the injured party (Jill) for the loss suffered.

However, it's important to note that specific performance is not always granted by the court. The court will consider various factors, including the feasibility and practicality of enforcing the specific performance remedy. If specific performance is not granted, Jill may alternatively seek other remedies, such as monetary damages, to compensate for any losses incurred due to the breach of contract.

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bill has worked for excellent corp. for 4 years. during this period, excellent corp. has contributed $25,000 to his retirement plan. assuming the company uses graded vesting, how much will bill be able to roll into an individual retirement account (ira) if he leaves excellent corp. at the end of 4 years? group of answer choices a. $20,000
b. $10,000 c. $15,000
d. $5,000
e. $0

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Bill be able to roll into an individual retirement account (ira) if he leaves excellent corp. at the end of 4 years would be $50000. The correct option is d.

Graded vesting is a type of vesting schedule commonly used by companies to determine the portion of employer contributions that an employee is entitled to retain when they leave the company before becoming fully vested. In this case, we need to calculate how much Bill will be able to roll into an Individual Retirement Account (IRA) if he leaves Excellent Corp. at the end of four years.

To determine the vesting amount, we need to know the vesting schedule established by Excellent Corp. Let's assume the following graded vesting schedule: 25% vesting after the first year, 50% vesting after the second year, 75% vesting after the third year, and 100% vesting after the fourth year.

After the first year, Bill will be entitled to 25% of the employer contributions, which amounts to $6,250 (25% of $25,000). After the second year, he will be entitled to an additional 25%, which is another $6,250. After the third year, he will be entitled to 25% more, which is $6,250. Finally, at the end of the fourth year, he will be fully vested and entitled to the remaining 25% of the contributions, which is $6,250.

Summing up all the amounts, Bill will be able to roll a total of $25,000 (initial contribution) + $6,250 + $6,250 + $6,250 + $6,250 = $50,000 into his Individual Retirement Account (IRA) if he leaves Excellent Corp. at the end of four years.

Therefore, Bill will be able to roll $50,000 into his IRA, which is the full amount contributed by Excellent Corp. over the four-year period.

Therefore, The correct option is d.

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Complete question

bill has worked for excellent corp. for 4 years. during this period, excellent corp. has contributed $25,000 to his retirement plan. assuming the company uses graded vesting, how much will bill be able to roll into an individual retirement account (ira) if he leaves excellent corp. at the end of 4 years? group of answer choices a. $20,000

b. $10,000 c. $15,000 d. $50,000 e. $0

From the following information of a company at the end of 2004, calculate the amount of debtors at the beginning of the year. $ Total Sales 4,40,000 Cash Sales 2,00,000 Debtors (Closing) 50,000 Average Collection Period 3 months

Answers

The approximate amount of debtors at the beginning of the year is $9,179.70.

To calculate the amount of debtors at the beginning of the year, we need to determine the average daily sales and multiply it by the average collection period.

First, let's calculate the average daily sales:

Total Sales = Cash Sales + Credit Sales

Credit Sales = Total Sales - Cash Sales

Credit Sales = $440,000 - $200,000

Credit Sales = $240,000

Average Daily Sales = Credit Sales / 365 days

Average Daily Sales = $240,000 / 365

Average Daily Sales ≈ $657.53

Next, we can calculate the average accounts receivable balance:

Average Collection Period = 3 months

Average Collection Period in days = 3 months * 30 days/month

Average Collection Period in days = 90 days

Average Accounts Receivable = Average Daily Sales * Average Collection Period

Average Accounts Receivable = $657.53 * 90

Average Accounts Receivable ≈ $59,179.70

Lastly, to find the debtors at the beginning of the year, we need to adjust for the closing debtors:

Debtors at the Beginning of the Year = Average Accounts Receivable - Debtors (Closing)

Debtors at the Beginning of the Year = $59,179.70 - $50,000

Debtors at the Beginning of the Year ≈ $9,179.70

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the aggregate demand curve is multiple choice a. downsloping because of the interest-rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects. b. downsloping because production costs decrease as real output rises.
c. vertical under conditions of full employment.
d. horizontal when there is considerable unemployment in the economy.

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The aggregate demand curve is downsloping because of the interest-rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects. The correct option is A.

The interest-rate effect refers to the fact that as the price level rises, the demand for money increases, which raises interest rates and reduces spending on investment goods. The real-balances effect refers to the fact that as the price level rises, the purchasing power of money declines, which reduces spending on consumer goods. Finally, the foreign purchases effect refers to the fact that as the price level rises, exports become more expensive and imports become relatively cheaper, which reduces net exports. All of these factors combine to create a downward-sloping aggregate demand curve.

The aggregate demand curve is not downsloping because production costs decrease as real output rises (option B). This would describe the shape of the short-run aggregate supply curve, not the aggregate demand curve.

The aggregate demand curve is not vertical under conditions of full employment (option C).

Finally, the aggregate demand curve is not horizontal when there is considerable unemployment in the economy (option D).

Thus, The correct option is A.

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which of the following would not be counted in 2016's gdp? group of answer choices a. the 2016 salary of a used furniture salesperson
b. the value of a laser printer manufactured in 2016 but not sold in 2016 c. the commissions earned by a sales associate in selling home theater systems built prior to 2016 d. the value of a 1976 convertible you purchase from a dealer in 2016

Answers

The option that would not be counted in 2016's GDP is : the value of a 1976 convertible you purchase from a dealer in 2016. the correct option is option D.

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period, usually a year. It includes the final market value of all goods and services produced, sold, and consumed within that time frame.

Option A, the 2016 salary of a used furniture salesperson, would be counted in the GDP. The salary represents a service provided in that year, contributing to the overall economic activity.

Option B, the value of a laser printer manufactured in 2016 but not sold in 2016, would also be counted in the GDP. The value of the printer is considered part of the production for that year, regardless of whether it was sold or not.

Option C, the commissions earned by a sales associate in selling home theater systems built prior to 2016, would also be counted in the GDP. The commissions earned are a part of the sales associate's income and contribute to the overall economic activity for that year.

However, option D, the value of a 1976 convertible purchased in 2016, would not be counted in 2016's GDP. GDP measures the production of new goods and services within the specified time period. The purchase of a used car does not contribute to the production of new goods or services in that year, as it is a transaction between individuals and does not represent new economic activity.

In summary, GDP includes the value of goods and services produced and consumed within a specific time period. While options A, B, and C represent economic activity within 2016, option D involves the purchase of a used item and is not considered part of the GDP calculation for that year.

Therefore,  the correct option is option D.

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why is the demand curve with constant unitary elasticity concave

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The demand curve with constant unitary elasticity is concave because of the nature of unitary elasticity itself.

Unitary elasticity means that the percentage change in quantity demanded is equal to the percentage change in price. In other words, when the price changes by a certain percentage, the quantity demanded changes by the same percentage in the opposite direction. When plotting a demand curve with constant unitary elasticity on a graph, we typically use a logarithmic scale for both the price and quantity axes.

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blue spruce co. uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense and concludes that 2% of accounts receivable will become uncollectible. accounts receivable are $402,000 at the end of the year, and the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $2,723.

Answers

The final answer is that Blue Spruce Co. should record $5,413 as bad debt expense for the year, adjusting the allowance for doubtful accounts to $8,136.

To calculate the bad debt expense, first find 2% of the accounts receivable ($402,000 * 0.02), which equals $8,040. Next, compare this amount with the existing credit balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts ($2,723). The difference between these two amounts is the bad debt expense to be recorded, which is $8,040 - $2,723 = $5,317. After recording this bad debt expense, the allowance for doubtful accounts will be adjusted to $8,040, ensuring an accurate representation of the anticipated uncollectible receivables. This process follows the **percentage-of-receivables basis** method, and it helps companies like Blue Spruce Co. to estimate and manage potential losses from **accounts receivable**.

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Which statement correctly describes how the powers to regulate commerce are divided in the US Constitution?
A. State governments can regulate commerce within the state.
B. Congress can regulate commerce between the states.
C. Trades are modified
D. no all of the above

Answers

The correct statement that describes how the powers to regulate commerce are divided in the US Constitution is option B.

According to the US Constitution, Congress has the power to regulate commerce between the states. This power is granted to Congress in Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution, which is also known as the Commerce Clause. This means that Congress can regulate trade, commerce, and navigation between the states to ensure that it is conducted in a fair and uniform manner. However, state governments can regulate commerce within their state, as long as it does not interfere with Congress's regulation of interstate commerce. Therefore, options A and C are not entirely correct. Option D is incorrect because option B is correct.

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a key factor determining the accounting for equity investments is

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A key factor determining the accounting for equity investments is the level of control that the investor has over the investee. If the investor has significant influence over the investee but does not have control, the equity investment is accounted for using the equity method.

This involves recognizing the investor's share of the investee's profits and losses in the investor's income statement. On the other hand, if the investor has control over the investee, the equity investment is accounted for using the consolidation method. This involves consolidating the financial statements of the investor and the investee into a single set of financial statements, as if they were one entity. Therefore, it is essential for investors to assess their level of control over their equity investments to ensure that they are accounting for them correctly, in accordance with the applicable accounting standards.

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Housing that qualifies for exemption from familial status provisions include?

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Housing that qualifies for exemption from familial status provisions includes housing specifically designed and designated for older adults, such as retirement communities or senior housing facilities.

Under the familial status provisions of fair housing laws, it is generally illegal to discriminate against families with children in housing. However, there are exemptions for housing that is specifically designed and designated for older adults. These exemptions acknowledge the unique needs and preferences of older individuals, who may prefer living in communities that cater to their age group and offer specific amenities or services. Retirement communities or senior housing facilities typically have age restrictions and provide a range of specialized features like healthcare services, recreational activities, and safety measures tailored to the needs of older residents. These exemptions aim to balance the protection of familial status with the recognition of housing options tailored for older adults.

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do you need, or will you need in the future, any immigration-related support or sponsorship from ellation in order to begin or continue employment with ellation?

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When someone endorses your application for a visa, they are agreeing to be accountable for your behavior while you are abroad. In a sense, the sponsor is petitioning the government to permit the guest access.

If there isn't evidence that the visa applicant can afford to pay for their own journey, a sponsor is required. Therefore, you will require a sponsor if your bank account does not contain the requested sum for the last three months. An employer in the US has hired you if you have a US visa or are sponsored for employment there. They are promising that you will be a legitimate resident who will be able to work with the US visa authorities. Your employer will guarantee that you'll fulfill the duties of the post for which you were engaged.

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You are setting up a protective put and can use a put option with either a 70 or an 80 strike. When comparing the two choices, which of the following is correct?
A.The put option with a strike of 70 is more expensive but it provides better insurance.
B.Both options are similar in price, but the put option with a strike of 80 provides better insurance.
C.The put option with a strike of 80 is more expensive but provides better insurance.
D.Both options provide similar levels of insurance, but the put with a strike of 70 is more expensive.
E. The put option with a strike of 80 is cheaper and it provides better insurance.
F. The put option with a strike of 70 is cheaper and it provides better insurance.

Answers

C. The put option with a strike of 80 is more expensive but provides better insurance.

When setting up a protective put strategy, the strike price of the put option determines the level of insurance provided. A put option with a lower strike price provides more insurance as it allows for a greater downside protection.

Option A is incorrect because it states that the put option with a strike of 70 is more expensive, but in fact, it is the put option with a strike of 80 that is more expensive.

Option B is incorrect because it states that both options are similar in price, but this contradicts the information given in the question that the put option with a strike of 70 is more expensive.

Option D is incorrect because it states that both options provide similar levels of insurance, but this is not the case. The put option with a strike of 70 provides better insurance due to its lower strike price.

Option E is incorrect because it states that the put option with a strike of 80 is cheaper, which is not true based on the information provided.

Option F is incorrect because it states that the put option with a strike of 70 is cheaper, but in fact, it is more expensive.

The correct answer is C. The put option with a strike of 80 is more expensive but provides better insurance as it offers greater downside protection compared to the put option with a strike of 70.

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Gwen had three accounts as listed here. In 2020, how much was her total insurance coverage by the FDIC? • Bank A: $250,000 • Bank B: $50,000 • Bank C: $300,000 Multiple Choice a) $250,000 b) $300,000 c) $550.000 d) $600,000 $825,000

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The total insurance coverage of Gwen is $600,000. The correct option is c.

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) provides insurance coverage for deposits held in participating banks. In the case of Gwen, she has three accounts in different banks, each with its own insurance coverage amount.

Bank A: $250,000

Bank B: $50,000

Bank C: $300,000

The total insurance coverage is:

$250,000 + $50,000 + $300,000

= $600,000

Therefore, the correct option is c.

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prior to the current period, omar phipps had earnings subject to social security tax of $117,350. this week, omar has gross earnings of $1,250 and contributes $60 to a dependent-care flexible spending account. his earnings subject to social security tax during the current week are $

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Omar's earnings subject to social security tax during the current week are **$1,190**.

To calculate Omar's earnings subject to social security tax, we first need to consider his gross earnings and subtract any contributions to a dependent-care flexible spending account. In this case, Omar has gross earnings of $1,250 and contributes $60 to a dependent-care flexible spending account. So, his adjusted earnings for the week are $1,250 - $60 = $1,190. Since Omar's prior earnings subject to social security tax were $117,350, they have already exceeded the annual limit for social security tax, but we still need to determine his earnings subject to the tax for the current week. The final result is **$1,190**, which represents Omar's earnings subject to social security tax during the current week.

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the primary difference between demand management and demand forecasting is

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The primary difference between demand management and demand forecasting is that demand management focuses on actively influencing and shaping demand through various strategies, while demand forecasting is the process of estimating future demand based on historical data and market trends.

Demand management involves proactive measures taken by businesses to manipulate or influence demand for their products or services. It encompasses activities such as pricing strategies, marketing campaigns, promotions, and product differentiation to stimulate or regulate demand. Demand management aims to optimize the allocation of resources and meet customer needs while maximizing profitability.

On the other hand, demand forecasting is a more passive process that involves analyzing historical data, market research, and statistical techniques to predict future demand patterns. It helps businesses plan their production, inventory, and supply chain activities accordingly. Demand forecasting provides insights into expected sales volumes, customer preferences, and market trends, enabling organizations to make informed decisions about capacity planning, procurement, and resource allocation.

In summary, demand management focuses on actively managing and influencing demand through various strategies, while demand forecasting is a predictive analysis that estimates future demand based on historical data and market trends.

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A recent important change to real estate brokerage practices is A) digital communication in all its forms B) fax transmissions C) use of personal assistants D) the use of electronic signatures

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The recent important change to real estate brokerage practices is D) the use of electronic signatures.

Electronic signatures have revolutionized the real estate industry by streamlining the process of signing and executing contracts and documents. This technology enables real estate professionals and clients to sign agreements electronically, eliminating the need for physical paperwork and reducing the time and effort required to complete transactions. Electronic signatures provide convenience, efficiency, and security, allowing parties to sign contracts remotely and securely, even from different locations. This shift has significantly accelerated the pace of real estate transactions and improved overall productivity in the industry.

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Now that healthcare benefits are mandated for most employers, how do we balance competing for the right labor force, avoiding or not avoiding the tax penalties for those employees not covered, and keeping premium costs under control?
Must be 200 words in length and include at least 1 academic resources

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Employers today are facing a challenging task of balancing the competing demands of attracting the right labor force, avoiding tax penalties, and keeping healthcare premium costs under control.  it is important to understand the implications of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) and the importance of offering competitive healthcare benefits.

The ACA requires most employers to provide healthcare coverage to their employees, or face penalties. Employers also need to consider the cost of healthcare benefits, which can be a significant portion of their overall compensation package. To balance these costs and attract the right labor force, employers can consider offering a variety of healthcare options, such as high-deductible plans or wellness programs. To avoid tax penalties, employers must ensure they are compliant with the ACA regulations.

This includes offering healthcare coverage to full-time employees and tracking their eligibility. Employers can also consider working with a third-party administrator or a healthcare consultant to manage compliance and avoid penalties. In conclusion, balancing healthcare benefits, tax penalties, and premium costs can be a complex task for employers. However, by offering competitive healthcare options and being compliant with ACA regulations, employers can attract the right labor force while keeping costs under control.

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bonds that are not secured by specific property are called a. a chattel mortgage. b. open-end mortgage bonds. c. debentures. d. blanket mortgage bonds.

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c. debentures.

Debentures are bond that are not secured by specific

specific property. Unlike secured bonds, which are backed by specific assets or property, debentures are unsecured and rely solely on the creditworthiness and general reputation of the issuer. They are considered general obligations of the issuing entity and are typically supported by the overall financial strength of the issuer.

Chattel mortgage ( a) refers to a loan secured by movable personal property, while open-end mortgage bonds ( b) and blanket mortgage bonds ( d) are both types of secured bonds that are backed by specific properties or assets.

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Which of the following statements of the empirical evidence on security returns are correctly applying risk-based explanation?
A. Shares of large-size companies tend to earn lower returns than the small-size companies. This is because large stocks tend to be popular and more liquid than small stocks.
B. Shares of companies with robust profitability tend to earn higher returns than those with weak profitability. This is not a surprise because it is less risky to invest in a profitable company.
C. Shares of high Book-to-Market ratio(B/M) companies tend to earn a higher return than the low B/Mshares.This is because the high B/Mfirms are less flexible and less quick in responding to shocks.
D. Investing to the shares recently earned the highest returns tend to be more profitable than investing to those with the lowest returns. This is because such winning shares tend to be less risky than the losers
E. Shares of companies with conservative investment pattern tend to earn higher returns than those with the aggressive pattern. This is because aggressive investment naturally invites more risk.

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The correctly applied risk-based explanations among the given statements are:

B. Shares of companies with robust profitability tend to earn higher returns than those with weak profitability. This is not a surprise because it is less risky to invest in a profitable company.

E. Shares of companies with conservative investment patterns tend to earn higher returns than those with aggressive patterns. This is because aggressive investment naturally invites more risk.

These statements ly apply risk-based explanations to the observed security returns. In statement B, it suggests that investing in profitable companies is less risky, which can lead to higher returns. Similarly, statement E states that conservative investment patterns are associated with lower risk, leading to higher returns.

On the other hand, statements A, C, and D do not explicitly provide risk-based explanations for the observed security returns. Statement A attributes the difference in returns between large and small companies to popularity and liquidity, rather than explicitly mentioning risk. Statement C mentions the responsiveness to shocks but does not directly link it to risk. Statement D mentions higher returns without providing a clear risk-based explanation.

Remember, risk-based explanations in the context of security returns typically involve the relationship between risk and return, where higher risk is expected to be associated with higher returns, all else being equal.

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The ________ is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise. A) bill of lading B) draft C) banker's acceptance D) line of credit

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The answer is A) bill of lading. A bill of lading is a legal document issued by a carrier or transport company that outlines the details of the shipment being transported.

What does it serve?

It serves as a receipt of goods and a contract between the exporter and the carrier. The bill of lading includes information such as the type and quantity of goods, the name and address of the buyer and seller, the date of shipment, and the terms of delivery.

It is an essential document for international trade, as it helps to ensure that the goods are properly identified, shipped and delivered to the intended destination.

The exporter needs to provide the bill of lading to the importer to claim the goods at the port of arrival.

Hence, option A. is correct.

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Rocky Mountain Tire Center sells 13,000 go-cart tires per year. The ordering cost for each order is $35, and the holding cost is 50 $18 per tire if 200 or more, but fewer than 8,000, tires are ordered, and $13 per tire if 8,000 or more tires are ordered. a) How many tires should Rocky Mountain order each time it places an order? Rocky Mountain's optimal order quantity is 8000 units (enter your response as a whole number). b) What is the total cost of this policy? Total annual cost of ordering optimal order size=$(round your response to the nearest whole number). The ordering cost for each order is $35, and the holding cost is 50% of the purchase price of the tiros per year. The purchase price is $19 per tire il fewer than 200 tires are ordered, od, and $13 per tire if 8,000 or more tires are ordered. aces an order? our response as a whole number). your response to the nearest whole number)

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a) Rocky Mountain Tire Center should order 8000 tires each time it places an order. b) The total annual cost of this policy would be $21,875.

To determine the optimal order quantity for Rocky Mountain Tire Center, we need to use the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) formula, which is:EOQ = sqrt((2SD)/H)where S = annual demand, D = ordering cost per order, and H = holding cost per unit per year.Using the given values, we have:S = 13,000D = $35H = $18 (if fewer than 8,000 tires are ordered)H = $13 (if 8,000 or more tires are ordered)We need to calculate the annual holding cost per unit:HC = Q/2 * H, where Q is the order quantity. If Q is less than 8,000, then H = $18, and if Q is greater than or equal to 8,000, then H = $13.Substituting the values into the formula, we get:EOQ = sqrt((2*13,000*$35)/$18) = 7966.45Since we can't order a fraction of a tire, we should round up to the nearest whole number. Therefore, Rocky Mountain Tire Center should order 8,000 tires each time it places an order.The total annual cost of this policy can be calculated using the following formula:Total cost = annual ordering cost + annual holding cost Annual ordering cost = (annual demand/order quantity) * ordering cost = (13,000/8,000) * $35 = $56.875Annual holding cost = (order quantity/2) * holding cost per unit = (8,000/2) * $13 = $52,000Total cost = $56.875 + $52,000 = $52,056.875, which rounds up to $21,875. Therefore, the total annual cost of this policy would be $21,875.

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