is this table a function? why or why not?

Answer:

10 units

Step-by-step explanation:

LMNO is a square.

All sides of square are equal

MN = LM

3x + 1 = x + 7

3x - x = 7 - 1

2x = 6

x = 6/2

x = 3

LM = x + 7 = 3 + 7 = 10

LM = 10 units

Answer:

(b - 1) (5b - 6)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Use rise over run. Find two points that are at perfect points. For example (3,2). Don't use something like (2.45, 7.34), That will make it difficult. I used (0, 4) and (-3, 4). To get from (-3,4) to (0,4), you have to go up 8 and to the right 3. Always count up or down first and then side to side.  

Answer:

I think is (x+0,5)^{2} - 6,25

Step-by-step explanation:

a(x-h)square + k

Answer: y = x² + x - 6

the equation is y = ax² + bx + c (a ≠ 0)

see in the graph, the equation passed through (-3;0), (2;0) and (0;-6), so we have:

9a - 3b + c = 0

4a + 2b + c = 0

c = -6

=> a = 1

    b = 1

    c = -6

=> the equation is y = x² + x - 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The probability is zero

Step-by-step explanation:

For a number to be a multiple of 5, the number must end with either 0 or 5

These are the only numbers in which we can have 5 as a factor of

Now when we raise 2 to any number, there are only some sets of possible results

These numbers are only multiples of 2

These can be;

2, 4, 6 and 8

No root of two has its end in 0 or 5, so none has 5 has its factor

Let us now look at 3

The multiples of 3 when raised are;

3,9,1,7,

As we can see, at no point do we have 5 or 0 as the result

So since we have none of both as ending 5 or 0, the probability we are looking for is zero

Answer:

Southwest

Step-by-step explanation:

Southwest always has good timing.

Answer:

SouthWest airlines

Step-by-step explanation:

It is the best Airlines and will always arrive on time

Answer:

a) 44[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]/3 feet

b) .3 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

We know all three of the angles: 30 60 90. So we can divide 22 by [tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex], and then multiply that number by 2. We cannot have a radicand in the bottom, so multiply the denominator and numerator by

for b), simply divide a) by 75 ft/min, which is approximately  .3 minutes.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1) W = 10

  2) x = 33/2

Step-by-step explanation:

These are 2-step linear equations. Step 1: Add the opposite of the constant on the right. Step 2: Divide by the coefficient of the variable.

__

1) 15 = 2W -5

  20 = 2W . . . . . add +5

  10 = W . . . . . . . divide by 2

__

2) 24 = 2x -9

  33 = 2x . . . . . add +9

  33/2 = x . . . . divide by 2

_____

As always, whatever you do to one side of the equation must also be done to the other side. That is, the same number is added to both sides; both sides are divided by the same number.

Answer:

Translation: Solutions to effective family education

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is B that is

ΔABC is similar to ΔEDC

Step-by-step explanation:

look at the figure abc and edc completely match together as a is a right angle and is at the the first, similarly e is also a right angle and is at the first. also b is at the same place as d i.e. in between the right angle and the last angle.

moreover, c is at the last in abc just like in edc

Answer:

5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Rising, there are 5 squares. Running, there are 2 squares. The line is rising left to right, so the slope is positive.

Answer:

B, the cost of 0 bags

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b) The cost of zero bags of peanuts

Explanation:

Because it is at (0,0), that means it's at $0 and 0 bags of peanuts based on the labels for the x and y axis.

Martin still has 30% of the problems left to do.

Answer:

D)30%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6 jellybean

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

Esmeralda received a bag of jellybean the contains regular flavored jelly beans and surprise jelly bean.

Consider the regular flavored jellybean to be = r;  &

The surprise jelly bean.= s

From the bag, there are 40 jellybeans of which 15% is surprise jellybean.

Therefore the number of expected surprise jellybeans is:

= total number of jellybeans × percentage of surprise jellybean

= 40 × (15 /100)

= 6 jellybean

If  6 surprise jellybean is presented in the bag; then the number of regular flavored jellybean = 40 - 6 = 34 regular flavored jellybean

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling an even number on one roll is 3/6 = 1/2. Assuming the rolls are independent, the probability of rolling an even number 3 times is ...

 (1/2)(1/2)(1/2) = 1/8

The probability that Nancy rolls all even numbers in 3 rolls is 1/8

Answer:

0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

fastbridge

Answer:

An example can be 14 + (-14) = 0

Whenever you encounter a problem like the one I put, your answer should ALWAYS be 0 because you start with 14. Now take away 14 you end up with 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Answer:

26 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Length = 24 cm

Width = 8 cm

Height = 6 cm

Required:

Diagonal of the box

SOLUTION:

Using the pythagorean theorem, [tex] a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = d^2 [/tex], where,

a, b and c are the dimensions of the box, and d is the length of the diagonal.

Plug in the value into the formula

[tex] 24^2 + 8^2 + 6^2 = d^2 [/tex]

[tex] 676 = d^2 [/tex]

[tex] \sqrt{676} = \sqrt{d^2} [/tex]

[tex] 26 = d [/tex]

Length of diagonal of the box = 26 cm

Answer:

0.419

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate this, we shall make use of Bernoulli approximation of Binomial distribution

if 20% are defective, then 80% are not defective

Probability of selecting a defective fuse is 20/100 = 0.2

Probability of selecting a non defective one is 0.8

Probability of at least 1 being defective is = 1 - Probability of none being defective

Mathematically that will be;

0.8^8 = 0.168

The above is probability of none defective

So the probability of at least one will be

1 - 0.168 = 0.832

Probability of not more than 1 means;

Probability of none + probability of 1 being defective

We already have probability of none above

Probability of 1 being defective means 8 will be non defective

The probability in this case is;

8 C 1 0.2^1 0.8^7

= 8 * 0.2 * 0.8^7 = 0.336

Add this to the probability of none = 0.336 + 0.168 = 0.504

So the probability that we want to calculate from the question will be;

Probability of at least one defective * probability of not more than one defective

= 0.832 * 0.504 = 0.419

Answer:

4 dollars per pint. You can 0.25 pint per dollar. For 20 dollars

u can get 5 pints. 8 pints will be 32 dollars.

Answer:

Per pint is $4

You get a .25 pint for 1 dollar

You get 5 pints for $20

It cost $32 for 8 pints of raspberries

Step-by-step explanation:

Once you find the unit rate you can multiply and divide depending on the question.

Answer:

It didn’t go up, it went down 3 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s negative degrees so the less negative it is the higher it is.

Answer:

it rose by -3C, or went down 3C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-1 > -2

Step-by-step explanation:

-9 ÷ (3(3) > -2

-9 ÷ 9= -1

-1 > -2

this is true

Answer:

5765/574

Step-by-step explanation:

there u go lol

-8,-6,-4

-10,-6,0

these are the possible test points for your three intervals

Answer:

4≤x≤8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

125°

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 24 is equal to 1.

6 is equal to 4x + 1

1 and 4x + 1 = 180°

x + 24 + 4x + 1 = 180

4x + x + 24 + 1 = 180

5x + 25 = 180

5x = 180 - 25

5x = 155

5x/5 = 155/5

x = 31

(angle) 6 = 4x + 1

(angle) 6 = 4(31) + 1

(angle) 6 = 124 + 1

(angle) 6 = 125°

Answer:Example 1:

Find the sum of the first 8 terms of the geometric series if a1=1 and r=2.

S8=1(1−28)1−2=255

Example 2:

Find S10 of the geometric sequence 24,12,6,⋯.

First, find r.  

r=r2r1=1224=12

Now, find the sum:

S10=24(1−(12)10)1−12=306964

Example 3:

Evaluate.

∑n=1103(−2)n−1

(You are finding S10 for the series 3−6+12−24+⋯, whose common ratio is −2.)

Sn=a1(1−rn)1−rS10=3[1−(−2)10]1−(−2)=3(1−1024)3=−1023  

In order for an infinite geometric series to have a sum, the common ratio r must be between −1 and 1.  Then as n increases, rn gets closer and closer to 0.  To find the sum of an infinite geometric series having ratios with an absolute value less than one, use the formula, S=a11−r, where a1 is the first term and r is the common ratio.

Example 4:

Find the sum of the infinite geometric sequence

27,18,12,8,⋯.

First find r:  

r=a2a1=1827=23

Then find the sum:

S=a11−r

S=271−23=81

Example 5:

Find the sum of the infinite geometric sequence

8,12,18,27,⋯ if it exists.

First find r:  

r=a2a1=128=32

Since r=32 is not less than one the series has no sum.

Step-by-step explanation: