identify and match the major parts of the complete income statement. continuing operations continuing operations drop zone empty. discontinued segments discontinued segments drop zone empty. earning per share earning per share drop zone empty. shows revenues, expenses, and income from ongoing operations. reports income from selling or closing a segment and income or loss from operating a discontinued segment. reports information for each of the three subcategories of income

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Answer 1

The complete income statement is a financial statement that reports a company's financial performance over a specific period. It consists of three major parts: continuing operations, discontinued segments, and earning per share.

What is the reason?

The continuing operations part shows revenues, expenses, and income from ongoing operations. It is a crucial part of the income statement as it reflects the company's core business performance.

The discontinued segments part reports income from selling or closing a segment and income or loss from operating a discontinued segment. This section provides information on the financial performance of the segments that are no longer a part of the company's ongoing operations.

Finally, earning per share is a metric that measures the company's profitability on a per-share basis.

Overall, the complete income statement is an essential tool for investors and analysts to evaluate a company's financial performance.

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Related Questions

GPack plc. recently announced an ordinary dividend per share of 26p. The dividend payout per share for 2017-2020 are 20p, 22p, 22p and 24p respectively. The shareholders require a return of 14 per cent. Calculate the price for this share.

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To calculate the price for GPack plc. shares, we can use the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) which takes into account the expected dividends and the required return of shareholders. The formula for the DDM is as follows:

Price = (Dividend per Share / Required Return) + (Dividend per Share / Required Return)^2 + ... + (Dividend per Share / Required Return)^n + Terminal Value

The Terminal Value represents the expected future dividends beyond the last dividend available in the given data. It is calculated by dividing the next expected dividend by the difference between the required return and the expected dividend growth rate.

Let's calculate the price for GPack plc. shares:

Dividend per Share: 26p

Required Return: 14%

Dividend Growth Rate: Assuming a conservative growth rate of 2% based on the historical dividend payouts.

Using the provided dividend payouts for 2017-2020, we can calculate the Terminal Value using the expected dividend growth rate:

Terminal Value = (24p * (1 + 0.02)) / (0.14 - 0.02) = 183.43p

Now, we can calculate the price using the DDM formula:

Price = (20p / 0.14) + (22p / 0.14)^2 + (22p / 0.14)^3 + (24p / 0.14)^4 + 183.43p / (1 + 0.14)^4

Calculating the above equation will give us the price for GPack plc. shares.

Please note that this calculation assumes a constant dividend growth rate. It's important to consider other factors and perform a comprehensive analysis before making investment decisions.

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here's our first in-lecture quiz. what is one way erikson's theory differs from freud's theory?

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One way Erikson's theory differs from Freud's theory is by emphasizing the importance of psychosocial development throughout the entire lifespan, whereas Freud's theory mainly focuses on psychosexual development in childhood.

While both Erikson and Freud are prominent figures in the field of psychology, their theories diverge in significant ways. Freud's psychoanalytic theory centers around the stages of psychosexual development, highlighting the influence of unconscious desires and early childhood experiences. In contrast, Erikson's psychosocial theory encompasses eight stages that span across the lifespan, addressing social and emotional challenges individuals encounter at each stage.

Erikson believed that individuals continue to develop and face psychosocial crises throughout their lives, with each stage presenting a unique conflict to be resolved. This perspective broadens the scope beyond childhood and accounts for the ongoing psychological growth and adaptation that occurs in adulthood and old age.

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At year-end, the perpetual inventory records of Pronghorn Company showed merchandise inventory of $112,300. The company determined, however, that its actual inventory on hand was $110,200. Record the necessary adjusting entry. (List all debit entries before credit entries. Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter O for the amounts.) Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit

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The necessary adjusting entry for the inventory discrepancy is as follows:

Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit

Inventory Adjustment (Expense) $2,100

Merchandise Inventory $2,100

The adjusting entry is required to account for the difference between the recorded inventory balance and the actual inventory on hand. Since the recorded inventory is overstated by $2,100 ($112,300 - $110,200), an expense account called "Inventory Adjustment" is debited by $2,100. This adjustment reduces the recorded inventory to the actual inventory value.

By recording the adjusting entry for the inventory discrepancy, the company corrects its inventory records to reflect the actual inventory on hand. This ensures that the financial statements accurately represent the company's assets and helps maintain the integrity of the inventory valuation.

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True/false: Companies today are focused on vertical integration encompassing the ownership and coordination of all supply chain activities while also outsourcing their core competencies.

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False. While some companies may focus on vertical integration, many others are pursuing a strategy of outsourcing non-core competencies to specialized vendors while retaining control over their core competencies.

This allows companies to benefit from the expertise of external partners while focusing on their own areas of expertise. The main answer to the question is false, and the is that while vertical integration is a viable strategy for some companies, many are pursuing a different approach that involves outsourcing non-core activities.
True/false: Companies today are focused on vertical integration encompassing the ownership and coordination of all supply chain activities while also outsourcing their core competencies.

False. While some companies do focus on vertical integration to control their supply chain activities, it is not accurate to say that all companies today follow this approach. Furthermore, outsourcing core competencies would be counterproductive, as companies generally aim to strengthen and retain control over their core competencies to maintain a competitive advantage in the market.

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1. once open, select option 1. accelerator. this portion simulates how particles are sped up. we take the charge of our particle to be positive. notice the electric field points from the left (red) plate to the right (blue) plate. what are the charges of the red and blue electrical plates? explain your answer. move the electric field slide bar to 10.0 n/c. hit the play button. how does the charged particle move? move the electric field slide bar to 30.0 n/c. hit the play button. how does the charged particle compared to 10 n/c? move the electric field slide bar to 50.0 n/c. hit the play button. how does the charged particle move compared to the ratios above?

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In this simulation, the red plate has a negative charge and the blue plate has a positive charge. This is because the electric field lines always go from the positive plate to the negative plate.

When the electric field slide bar is moved to 10.0 n/c and the play button is pressed, the charged particle moves slowly towards the positive plate. When the electric field slide bar is moved to 30.0 n/c and the play button is pressed, the charged particle moves faster towards the positive plate compared to 10.0 n/c. Finally, when the electric field slide bar is moved to 50.0 n/c and the play button is pressed, the charged particle moves even faster towards the positive plate compared to the previous ratios.

Overall, as the electric field strength increases, the charged particle moves faster towards the positive plate. This is because the electric field strength determines how quickly the charged particle is accelerated towards the opposite charge.
In the accelerator simulation, the electric field points from the left (red) plate to the right (blue) plate. Since the charged particle is positive and the electric field direction indicates the force acting on a positive charge, the red plate must be negatively charged and the blue plate must be positively charged.

When the electric field is set to 10.0 N/C and the play button is pressed, the charged particle moves towards the right, accelerated by the electric field. Increasing the electric field strength to 30.0 N/C results in the particle moving faster compared to the 10 N/C setting. Finally, when the electric field is set to 50.0 N/C, the charged particle moves even faster than the previous two settings due to the stronger force acting on it.

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Question 5 1 Which of the following is true in welfare economics? At the market cours, the consumer surplus into the producer The consumer surplus shows a person could see when the winness to pay exce

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The correct statement in welfare economics is option A: At the market equilibrium, the consumer surplus is always equal to the producer surplus. Consumer surplus is the difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a good or service and what they actually pay. Producer surplus, on the other hand, represents the difference between the price at which producers are willing to sell a good or service and the price they actually receive.

At the market equilibrium, the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded, and the market clears. This equilibrium results in the maximum combined consumer and producer surplus. The consumer surplus is represented by the area above the market price and below the demand curve, while the producer surplus is represented by the area below the market price and above the supply curve. In a perfectly competitive market, where equilibrium is achieved, the total consumer surplus is equal to the total producer surplus.

Option B refers to the concept of consumer surplus but does not accurately describe it. Option C describes the computation of producer surplus incorrectly. Option D refers to excess supply but not producer surplus.

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Complete question- Question 5 1 Which of the following is true in welfare economics?

A. At the market equilibrium, the consumer surplus is always equal to the producer surplus.

B. The consumer surplus shows a person could save when his/her willingness to pay exceeds what is actually said.

C. The producer surplus is computed by getting the area of the triangle below the curve.

D. The producer refers to the excess of quantity supply over quantity demanded.

Assume that a risk-averse investor currently owing stock in Company A decides to add the stock of either B or C to her portfolio. For simplification, assume that all three stocks offer the same expected return and total variability (standard deviation). The correlation of return between stocks A and B is -0.15 and between A and C is +0.15. Her portfolio risk is expected to
a. decline more when the investor buys stock B
b. decline more when the investor buys stock C
c. increase when either stock B or C is bought
d. remain the same

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Portfolio risk is the variability of returns, which refers to how much the return on an investment fluctuates over time. In finance, a risk-averse investor is someone who prefers investments with lower returns and lower risk over investments with higher returns but higher risk. Assuming a risk-averse investor who owns stock in Company A wants to add either the stock of B or C to her portfolio, with the expectation that all three stocks offer the same expected return and total variability, she should consider the correlation of return between the stocks A, B, and C.

The correlation of return between stocks A and B is -0.15 and between A and C is +0.15. Since the investor is risk-averse, she will want to choose the stock that will help her to diversify and reduce the overall risk of her portfolio. This means that she will want to choose the stock that has the lowest correlation with the stock she already owns, which in this case would be either B or C.

Since the correlation between A and B is negative (-0.15), this means that the returns on the two stocks move in opposite directions. This can be a good thing for the investor because when one stock is doing poorly, the other stock may be doing well, which can help to reduce the overall risk of the portfolio. On the other hand, since the correlation between A and C is positive (+0.15), this means that the returns on the two stocks move in the same direction. This can be a bad thing for the investor because when one stock is doing poorly, the other stock may also be doing poorly, which can increase the overall risk of the portfolio.

Therefore, the investor should add stock B to her portfolio, which would help to diversify her portfolio and reduce overall risk, while still maintaining the same expected return and total variability.

The dollar-value LIFO retail method Select one: O a. does not really include retail LIFO in the calculation process. O b. combines the principle of retail LIFO with dollar-value LIFO. O c. is an interesting theoretical exercise that is rarely used in practice. O d. is a new principle.

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B) combines the principle of retail LIFO with dollar-value LIFO.

The dollar-value LIFO retail method combines the principles of retail LIFO (Last-In, First-Out) and dollar-value LIFO. This method is used to value inventory in retail businesses where a mix of different items with varying costs and selling prices are involved. It takes into account changes in both the quantity and value of inventory over time.

By using the dollar-value LIFO retail method, a retailer can account for changes in the cost of inventory and the impact of inflation on inventory values. It allows for adjustments to inventory layers based on changes in the retail selling prices and the cost-to-retail ratios of inventory items.

This method is a practical approach used by retailers to maintain accurate inventory valuations that reflect the changing market conditions. It helps in managing inventory costs and determining the cost of goods sold in a way that is consistent with the principles of LIFO and dollar-value adjustments.

The dollar-value LIFO retail method combines the principles of retail LIFO and dollar-value LIFO to accurately value inventory in retail businesses. It is a practical approach used by retailers to manage inventory costs and account for changes in both quantity and value over time.

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A total of $3000 is invested at 5%, 8%, and 12% annual interest. If the total interest earned after one year is $285 and the amount invested at 12% is triple the amount invested at 5%, find the amount
invested at each rate. There was $ invested at _____ 5%.

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A total of $3000 is invested at 5%, 8%, and 12% annual interest. The amount invested at 5% is $600.

Let's assume the amount invested at 5% is x dollars.  the amount invested at 12% is triple the amount invested at 5%, so the amount invested at 12% is 3x dollars.

Now, let's calculate the interest earned from each investment:

Interest from the amount invested at 5% = (x * 5%) = 0.05x dollars

Interest from the amount invested at 8% = ((3000 - x - 3x) * 8%) = 0.08(3000 - 4x) dollars

Interest from the amount invested at 12% = (3x * 12%) = 0.36x dollars

The total interest earned is given as $285:

0.05x + 0.08(3000 - 4x) + 0.36x = 285

Simplifying the equation:

0.05x + 240 - 0.32x + 0.36x = 285

0.09x = 45

x = 500

Therefore, the amount invested at 5% is $500.

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suppose that market demand is q = 660 – 12p and marginal cost is mc = 5. the producer surplus in a perfectly competitive market is $____, while the producer surplus in a monopoly market is $ ___.

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In a perfectly competitive market, the producer surplus can be calculate by finding

the area below the market price (p) and above the marginal cost (MC) curve. The producer surplus is the difference between the market price and the marginal cost multiplied by the quantity (q) produced. Using the given marginal cost of 5, we can set MC equal to the market price (p) to find the equilibrium quantity and price. 5 = 660 - 12p 12p = 660 - 5 12p = 655 p = 54.58 Substituting this price into the demand equation, we find the equilibrium quantity: q = 660 - 12(54.58) q ≈ 3.44 Therefore, in a perfectly competitive market, the producer surplus is: Producer Surplus = (p - MC) * q = (54.58 - 5) * 3.44 ≈ $177.84In a monopoly market, the producer has the ability to set the price above the marginal cost. However, since the specific price and quantity are not given for the monopoly market

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automation helps to reduce employee labor cost (and thus boosts productivity). which of the following is not a reason for moving toward increased automation? o a) safety and risk of injury to workers b) monotonous tasks o c) low volume tasks

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c) Low-volume tasks

Increasing automation is often driven by various factors, including the desire to improve productivity, reduce labor costs, and enhance workplace safety. However, low-volume tasks may not necessarily be a reason for moving toward increased automation. Low-volume tasks typically involve a limited quantity of work, and automating such tasks may not be cost-effective or efficient.

Automation is most commonly implemented for tasks that are high in volume, repetitive, and time-consuming. These tasks can benefit from automation by reducing human error, increasing speed and accuracy, and freeing up human workers to focus on more complex and value-added activities. Safety and risk of injury to workers, as well as monotonous tasks, are often valid reasons for adopting automation, as they aim to improve workplace conditions and employee well-being.

In the case of low-volume tasks, it may be more practical and economical to continue performing them manually or with limited automation rather than investing in complex and costly automated systems. The decision to automate should be carefully evaluated based on factors such as cost-effectiveness, return on investment, and overall efficiency gains.

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which of the following should be disclosed in a summary of significant accounting policies? basis of consolidation. composition of plant assets. adequacy of pension plan assets in relation to vested benefits. concentration of credit risk of financial instruments.

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The basis of consolidation should be disclosed in a summary of significant accounting policies.  (Option A)

A summary of significant accounting policies provides users of financial statements with information about the company's accounting methods and principles. The basis of consolidation is a critical accounting policy that should be disclosed. It explains how the company combines the financial statements of its subsidiaries or other entities it controls. The disclosure would include details about the criteria used for consolidation and any adjustments made to eliminate intercompany transactions or balances.

While the other options may also be important disclosures in other sections of the financial statements or footnotes, they are not typically included in a summary of significant accounting policies. The composition of plant assets may be discussed in the property, plant, and equipment section, the adequacy of pension plan assets in relation to vested benefits may be covered in the employee benefits section, and the concentration of credit risk of financial instruments may be disclosed in the notes on financial instruments or risk management.

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military food service is interested in management companies mostly to

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Military food service is interested in management companies to enhance efficiency, improve quality, and provide cost-effective solutions for feeding large numbers of personnel in diverse operational environments.

Military food service operations often involve serving meals to a large number of personnel in various locations and situations, such as military bases, field deployments, and remote areas. The involvement of management companies can bring several benefits. These companies have expertise in food service management, allowing them to streamline operations, optimize logistics, and improve overall efficiency. They can also bring innovation and quality enhancements to the food service, ensuring that military personnel receive nutritious and satisfying meals. Additionally, management companies can leverage their procurement networks and economies of scale to provide cost-effective solutions, reducing expenses for the military while maintaining high standards.

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Which of the following cash flows would be included in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows if the direct method is used? A. Interest paid on long-term debt
B. Cash received from the sale of investments C. Dividends paid to stockholders D. Cash received from issuing long-term debt

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The  option A, interest paid on long-term debt, would be included in the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows if the direct method is used.

The operating activities section of the statement of cash flows includes cash inflows and outflows that arise from the primary revenue-generating activities of a business. Interest paid on long-term debt is a cost associated with financing operations, which falls under operating activities. Cash received from the sale of investments and from issuing long-term debt are related to financing activities, while dividends paid to stockholders are related to investing activities and would not be included in the operating activities section.

A. Interest paid on long-term debt is related to the company's ongoing operations, so it is included in the operating activities section.

B. Cash received from the sale of investments is not directly related to operations; it is a part of investing activities.

C. Dividends paid to stockholders are not related to operations; they are a part of financing activities.

D. Cash received from issuing long-term debt is also not related to operations; it falls under financing activities.

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The following pertains to Upton Co. for the year ending December 31, 2019: Budgeted Sales $1,400,000 Break-even Sales 780,000 Budgeted Contribution Margin 680,000 Cashflow Break-even 240,000 Upton's margin of safety is:

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Budgeted Sales $1,400,000 Break-even Sales 780,000 Budgeted Contribution Margin 680,000 Cashflow Break-even 240,000 Upton's margin of safety is $620,000.

The margin of safety represents the difference between the budgeted sales and the break-even sales. It indicates how much sales can decline before the company starts incurring losses.

To calculate the margin of safety, we subtract the break-even sales from the budgeted sales. In this case, the budgeted sales are $1,400,000, and the break-even sales are $780,000.

Margin of Safety = Budgeted Sales - Break-even Sales

Margin of Safety = $1,400,000 - $780,000

Margin of Safety = $620,000

Upton Co. has a margin of safety of $620,000. This means that the company's sales can decline by $620,000 before it reaches the break-even point and starts incurring losses. The margin of safety provides a buffer for the company and indicates the level of sales cushion it has to absorb unexpected changes or fluctuations in the market. A higher margin of safety is generally desirable as it implies a more stable financial position and a greater ability to withstand adverse conditions. Upton Co. should monitor its margin of safety regularly to ensure it remains within acceptable levels and take appropriate actions if it declines significantly.

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gm is creating an alliance with lyft, a major ride-sharing service, to facilitate group of answer choices boundaries. stakeholder participation. financial awareness. creativity.

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stakeholder stakeholder participation.

GM's alliance with Lyft, a major ride-sharing service, is likely aimed at facilitating stakeholder participation.

Stakeholders are individuals or entities who have an interest or are affected by the actions and outcomes of a business or project. In this case, the stakeholders involved may include GM, Lyft, their respective customers, drivers, investors, and regulatory bodies.

By forming an alliance, GM and Lyft are collaborating to create a mutually beneficial partnership. This partnership allows them to leverage each other's strengths and resources to enhance their respective positions in the ride-sharing market. The alliance may involve various forms of stakeholder participation, such as joint decision-making, sharing of resources, knowledge exchange, and strategic planning.

Stakeholder participation is crucial for the success of collaborations, as it ensures that the interests and perspectives of all relevant parties are considered. In the context of the GM-Lyft alliance, stakeholder participation would involve engaging and involving various stakeholders in the planning, implementation, and evaluation of the partnership to create value and address their respective needs.

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Ash, Benny, and Chantel are the only buyers in the market for a private good. Answer the following questions based on the MC and MWTP functions given below. MC = 25+ 0.25Q MWTPA= 100-Q MWTPB = 210 - 2

Answers

Therefore, the equilibrium quantity when the market price is $210 and the marginal cost is 210-2 is 9000.  

Using the equation for the market equilibrium price (MC = MWTPA), we can find the equilibrium price as follows:

MC = 25 + 0.25Q

MC = 25 + 0.25(2000)

MC = 25 + 500

MC = 25 + 500

MC = 2550

Therefore, the equilibrium price when the market price is  25 and the marginal cost is 0.25 is 2550.

Question 2: What is the equilibrium quantity when the market price is $210 and the marginal cost is 210-2?

Solution: Using the equation for the market equilibrium quantity (MWTPB = MWTPA), we can find the equilibrium quantity as follows:

MWTPB = 100 - Q

MWTPB = 100 - 2000

MWTPB = 9000

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required: b. which two of the four basic tax planning variables increase the value of vern's investment?

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By strategically timing his income and taking advantage of available tax credits, Vern can potentially minimize his tax liability and increase the overall value of his investment.

The four basic tax planning variables are: Timing of income: This refers to the strategic timing of when income is received. By deferring income to future years or accelerating income into the current year, Vern can potentially increase the value of his investment. Deferring income allows for potential tax savings by delaying the tax liability, while accelerating income may take advantage of lower tax rates or tax deductions in the current year. Timing of deductions: Similar to timing of income, timing of deductions involves strategically timing when expenses or deductions are claimed. By maximizing deductible expenses in higher tax years and minimizing them in lower tax years, Vern can potentially increase the value of his investment. This can result in higher tax savings by maximizing deductions in years with higher tax rates. Choice of entity: Choice of entity refers to the selection of the legal structure through which Vern conducts his investment activities. Depending on the type of investment and Vern's overall financial situation, choosing the right entity structure (such as a corporation, partnership, or individual ownership) can impact the taxation of investment income and potentially increase the value of his investment. Tax credits: Tax credits are specific incentives provided by the tax code that directly reduce the amount of tax owed. By identifying and utilizing applicable tax credits related to his investment activities, Vern can potentially increase the value of his investment by reducing his overall tax liability.

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Calculate VaR and expected shortfall (Part 2): Suppose that each of two investments has a 3% chance of a loss of $10 million, a 7% chance of a loss of $3 million, and a 90% chance of a profit of $2 million. They are independent of each other. What is the VaR for a portfolio consisting of the two investments when the confidence level is 95%? Select one: O a $20 million O b. $13 million Oc. $8 million O d. $6 million Oe. $3 million

Answers

The Value at Risk(VaR) for the portfolio consisting of the two investments at a 95% confidence level is $3 million. The correct option is e. The expected shortfall is not provided in the question.

To calculate the VaR (Value at Risk) for the portfolio consisting of two investments, we need to consider the probability distribution of potential losses.

Let's calculate the potential losses for each investment:

Investment 1:

- 3% chance of a loss of $10 million

- 7% chance of a loss of $3 million

- 90% chance of a profit of $2 million

Investment 2:

- 3% chance of a loss of $10 million

- 7% chance of a loss of $3 million

- 90% chance of a profit of $2 million

Since the investments are independent, we can combine the probabilities to calculate the overall probabilities for the portfolio.

The worst-case scenario for the portfolio is if both investments incur their maximum losses. Therefore, the probability of this scenario occurring is 3% * 3% = 0.09% (0.03 * 0.03 = 0.0009).

The VaR at a 95% confidence level is the value below which we can expect losses to occur with a probability of 5%. To calculate this, we need to sort the potential losses in ascending order:

$2 million (profit), $2 million (profit), $3 million (loss), $3 million (loss), $10 million (loss), $10 million (loss)

Since the cumulative probability of the first four outcomes is 90%, we need to find the fifth outcome that corresponds to a cumulative probability of 95%. In this case, it is a loss of $3 million.

Therefore, the VaR for the portfolio is $3 million.

Thus, the correct answer is option e. $3 million.

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a depreciation of the real exchange rate in a small open economy could be the result of: a domestic tax cut. an increase in government spending. a decrease in the world interest rate. the expiration of an investment tax-credit provision.

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A depreciation of the real exchange rate in a small open economy could be the result of a decrease in the world interest rate among the given options.

The real exchange rate is the relative price of goods and services between two countries, adjusted for inflation. A depreciation of the real exchange rate means that the domestic currency has become relatively weaker compared to foreign currencies.

A decrease in the world interest rate can lead to a depreciation of the real exchange rate. When the world interest rate decreases, it can reduce the return on investment in the domestic economy. As a result, international investors may seek higher returns elsewhere, leading to capital outflows and a decrease in the demand for domestic currency. This decrease in demand can result in a depreciation of the real exchange rate.

On the other hand, a domestic tax cut, an increase in government spending, or the expiration of an investment tax-credit provision may have other effects on the economy, but they are not directly related to the depreciation of the real exchange rate.

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Which one of the following statements is correct for a corporation with a negative net income in both the present and the last fiscal year?
a.80% of the loss can be carried forward.
b.Neither of the losses can be used to reduce taxes.
c.This year's loss can be carried back, but last year's loss cannot be used.
d.Both losses can be carried forward and backward, without limit.

Answers

When a corporation experiences a negative net income in a fiscal year, it means that the total expenses incurred by the company have exceeded its total revenue. This results in a loss for the company. In case the company incurs losses in consecutive fiscal years, it can utilize those losses to reduce its tax liabilities in the future years.

There are two ways in which a company can utilize its losses - carry-forward and carry-backward. Carry-forward allows a company to use its losses to offset the taxable income in future years, while carry-backward enables the company to apply its losses to reduce taxes in the past years. In the given scenario, since the company has incurred losses in both the present and the last fiscal year, it can carry forward both losses without any limit. This means that the company can utilize the losses to offset its taxable income in the future years, thereby reducing its tax liabilities.

Option a, "80% of the loss can be carried forward," is incorrect because there is no limit on the amount of loss that a company can carry forward in case of consecutive losses. Option b, "Neither of the losses can be used to reduce taxes," is incorrect because the company can utilize its losses to reduce its tax liabilities in the future years. Option c, "This year's loss can be carried back, but last year's loss cannot be used," is incorrect because the company cannot carry back losses, and can only carry forward the losses in this scenario.

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Which accounts in the Chart of Accounts CANNOT be deleted? Answer: A. Accounts added by other users B. Preset accounts or those linked to other features C. Asset accounts D. All of them

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D. All of them. all accounts in the Chart of Accounts cannot be deleted. This includes accounts added by other users, preset accounts, those linked to other features, and asset accounts.

The Chart of Accounts forms the foundation of an organization's financial system, and deleting any of these accounts could disrupt the integrity and accuracy of financial reporting. Therefore, it is generally not recommended or allowed to delete any accounts from the Chart of Accounts.

The Chart of Accounts is a crucial component of an organization's financial structure. It consists of a list of accounts that categorize and track various financial transactions. Each account represents a specific financial element, such as assets, liabilities, revenues, or expenses.

All accounts in the Chart of Accounts, including accounts added by other users, preset accounts, those linked to other features, and asset accounts, cannot be deleted. This is because each account plays a vital role in recording and reporting financial information accurately.

Accounts added by other users may be essential for their specific needs or processes, and deleting them could disrupt their workflow. Preset accounts are often preconfigured to work seamlessly with the organization's financial software and deleting them may cause compatibility issues.

Moreover, accounts linked to other features, such as payroll or inventory management, are interconnected and deleting them could lead to data inconsistencies and errors in related processes.

Asset accounts, representing the resources owned by the organization, are fundamental to tracking the organization's financial health. Deleting asset accounts would hinder proper tracking and valuation of assets.

To maintain the integrity and accuracy of financial reporting, it is generally advisable not to delete any accounts from the Chart of Accounts. If changes are necessary, it is often recommended to make adjustments or modifications within the existing accounts rather than deleting them entirely.

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Dini a member of a protected class, applies for a job with Coffee Brew Corporation, but fails the company’s employment test and is not hired. Beal believes that the test has an unintentionally discriminatory effect. If so, this is
a constructive discharge.
disparate-impact discrimination.
disparate-treatment discrimination.
never discrimination.

Answers

If Dini, a member of a protected class, applies for a job with Coffee Brew Corporation, but fails the company's employment test and is not hired, and if Beal believes that the test has an unintentionally discriminatory effect, this is an example of disparate-impact discrimination. Disparate-impact discrimination occurs when a seemingly neutral policy or practice unintentionally has a discriminatory effect on a protected class.

If Beal believes that the employment test has an unintentionally discriminatory effect, then this would be an example of disparate-impact discrimination. Disparate-impact discrimination occurs when a seemingly neutral employment practice, such as a test, disproportionately affects members of a protected class and cannot be justified as job-related and consistent with business necessity. This is different from disparate-treatment discrimination, which occurs when an employer intentionally treats an individual differently because of their membership in a protected class. It is also not a constructive discharge, which occurs when an employee is forced to resign because of intolerable working conditions.

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If the test has an unintentionally discriminatory effect, this is known as disparate-impact discrimination.

Disparate impact is defined as a theory of discrimination in employment that holds that employment practices, policies, and other procedures that appear to be neutral and applied to everyone equally but that have a greater effect on one group over another can be deemed discriminatory and illegal.The federal courts are more than 100 years old. The US Supreme Court has issued decisions in hundreds of disparate-impact cases, including in the areas of hiring, promotions, terminations, and testing. The Supreme Court has provided a framework for resolving disparate-impact discrimination claims under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. The test must first show that the challenged practice has a disparate impact on a protected group.

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Using the information below, calculate net cash flows from operating activities: B ZAB Net income Receive cash from issuing stock Pay cash for equipment Increase in accounts receivable Depreciation expense Increase in accounts payable Receive cash from sale of land Pay cash dividends $120,000 80,000 90,000 10,000 $ 30,000 5,000 75,000 20,000 Multiple Choice $190,000 $155,000 Multiple Choice $190,000 $155,000. $145,000 $115,000.

Answers

To calculate the net cash flows from operating activities, we need to consider the cash inflows and outflows related to the operating activities of the company.

The net cash flows from operating activities can be calculated by considering the cash inflows and outflows directly related to the company's operating activities. In this case, the cash inflows include the amount received from issuing stock, increase in accounts receivable, and cash received from the sale of land. The cash outflows consist of payments made for equipment and increase in accounts payable. By subtracting the total cash outflows from the total cash inflows, we arrive at the net cash flows from operating activities. In this scenario,

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who is responsible for paying the taxes of a real estate salesperson?

Answers

The responsibility for paying taxes of a real estate salesperson typically falls on the individual real estate salesperson themselves.

As independent contractors or self-employed individuals, real estate salespeople are generally responsible for managing their own taxes. This includes fulfilling their tax obligations, such as reporting their income, deducting eligible expenses, and paying any applicable taxes, such as income tax and self-employment tax.

Real estate salespeople often receive commissions or earnings directly from the real estate transactions they facilitate. These earnings are considered self-employment income, and the salesperson is responsible for reporting and paying taxes on this income.

Additionally, real estate salespeople may have other tax-related responsibilities, such as making estimated tax payments throughout the year or keeping track of deductible business expenses.

It's important for real estate salespeople to understand their tax obligations and consult with tax professionals or accountants to ensure compliance with tax laws and maximize their deductions within the legal framework.

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a self-employed individual makes $95,000 per year. to which type of retirement plan can the maximum contribution be made? a roth ira b traditional ira c sep ira d simple ira

Answers

As a self-employed individual, the retirement plan that allows for the maximum contribution of $95,000 would be the SEP IRA (Simplified Employee Pension Individual Retirement Arrangement).

This type of plan allows for contributions of up to 25% of the individual's net earnings from self-employment, or $58,000 (whichever is less) for the year 2021. Since $95,000 is above the maximum limit for a Traditional or Roth IRA, and a SIMPLE IRA has a lower maximum contribution limit, the SEP IRA would be the best option for the individual in this scenario. It's important to note that contribution limits and eligibility requirements can change over time, so it's always a good idea to consult with a financial advisor or tax professional for specific guidance on retirement planning.

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Suppose you were writing a time server for non critical hardware such as your mobile phone. Which protocol would you use?
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. ICMP
d. MMP

Answers

For a time server on non-critical hardware like a mobile phone, the appropriate protocol would be UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

UDP is a lightweight and connectionless protocol, which makes it suitable for non-critical applications where occasional packet loss or data inconsistencies can be tolerated. UDP offers lower overhead and faster transmission compared to TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), making it a good choice for time synchronization purposes where real-time accuracy is not crucial. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is primarily used for network diagnostics, while MMP is not a recognized networking protocol.

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The management of Lanzilotta Corporation is considering a project that would require an investment of $255,000 and would last for 6 years. The annual net operating income from the project would be $109,000, which includes depreciation of $32,000. The scrap value of the project's assets at the end of the project would be $16,000. The cash inflows occur evenly throughout the year. The payback period of the project is closest to (Ignore income taxes.): (Round your answer to 1 decimal place.) Multiple Choice a) 1.8 years. b) 2.3 years. c) 1.6 years. d) 3.0 years.

Answers

Dividing the initial investment by the net cash inflow per month gives a payback period of approximately 39.7 months, which is closest to option d) 3.0 years.

How to find?

The payback period is a measure of how quickly an investment will generate enough cash inflows to recover the initial investment. To calculate the payback period of this project, we need to divide the initial investment by the annual net cash inflow.

In this case, the initial investment is $255,000 and the annual net cash inflow is $77,000 ($109,000 - $32,000). Therefore, the payback period is approximately 3.3 years ($255,000 ÷ $77,000).

However, since the cash inflows occur evenly throughout the year, we need to adjust the payback period to account for the timing of the cash flows. This means that we would need to divide the initial investment by the net cash inflow per period (i.e. per month or per quarter) rather than per year.

Assuming monthly cash inflows, the net cash inflow per month would be $6,417 ($77,000 ÷ 12). Dividing the initial investment by the net cash inflow per month gives a payback period of approximately 39.7 months, which is closest to option d) 3.0 years.

Hence, option d. is correct.

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describe the impact of the market revolution on potential customers

Answers

The market revolution, which took place in the 19th century, brought about significant changes in the way goods and services were produced, distributed, and consumed.

This period saw the emergence of new technologies and modes of transportation that made it possible for goods to be produced on a larger scale and transported over greater distances. As a result, potential customers had access to a wider variety of products at lower prices than ever before. The market revolution also led to the growth of cities, which in turn created new opportunities for people to engage in commerce and trade. However, these changes also brought about new challenges, such as increased competition and a lack of regulation, which could make it difficult for potential customers to navigate the marketplace. Overall, the impact of the market revolution on potential customers was complex, but it ultimately led to a more dynamic and diverse economy that provided consumers with greater choices and opportunities.

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The nominal exchange rate between the United States dollar and the Japanese yen is which of the following?
The rate at which one of the currencies can be converted into the other currency
Always equal to the real effective exchange rate except when nominal interest rates within the two countries diverge
Always equal to the real effective exchange rate except when real interest rates within the two countries diverge
The reciprocal of the real exchange rate

Answers

The nominal exchange rate between the United States dollar and the Japanese yen is the rate at which one of the currencies can be converted into the other currency.

The nominal exchange rate is the price of one currency in terms of another currency. It is the rate at which one currency can be exchanged for another currency. In the case of the United States dollar and the Japanese yen, the nominal exchange rate is the rate at which one dollar can be exchanged for a certain number of yen or vice versa. It is important to note that the nominal exchange rate can fluctuate over time due to various economic factors, such as inflation rates, interest rates, and trade balances.

The nominal exchange rate is not always equal to the real effective exchange rate except when nominal or real interest rates within the two countries diverge. The real effective exchange rate takes into account the inflation rate and the relative purchasing power of the two currencies. It is the rate at which the trade-weighted average value of one country's currency can be exchanged for the trade-weighted average value of another country's currency. The real effective exchange rate is a better measure of the true exchange rate between two countries, as it reflects the changes in the relative prices of goods and services in each country.

The nominal exchange rate is also not the reciprocal of the real exchange rate. The real exchange rate is the rate at which the goods and services of one country can be exchanged for the goods and services of another country. It takes into account the inflation rate and the relative purchasing power of the two currencies. The real exchange rate reflects the true value of the exchange rate between two countries in terms of their respective goods and services.

In summary, the main answer to the question is that the nominal exchange rate between the United States dollar and the Japanese yen is the rate at which one of the currencies can be converted into the other currency. The nominal exchange rate can fluctuate over time due to various economic factors, and it is not always equal to the real effective exchange rate or the reciprocal of the real exchange rate.

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