I NEED HELP ON THIS TOOO!!! IMPORTANT!!!! EMERGENCY!!!!!

By definition, the correct answer is the last option: the inverse of the function f(x) = 4x is h(x)= [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]x.

The inverse or reciprocal function of f(x) is called another function f⁻¹(x) that satisfies: If f(x)=y , then f⁻¹(y)=x.

To build or calculate the inverse function of any function, one of the ways to do it is to interchange the variables x and y, and use a combination of algebraic methods in order to isolate the variable "y".

Being f(x)=y=4x, to calculate the inverse, in first place you interchange the variables x and y:

f(y)=x=4y

Isolating the variable y, you get:

h(x)=x÷4= [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]x

Finally, the correct answer is the last option: the inverse of the function f(x) = 4x is h(x)= [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]x.

Learn more about the inverse of a function:

https://brainly.com/question/13799722

Answer:

20 girls.

Step-by-step explanation:

40% * 50

= 20

Hope this helped!

An exterior angle equals the sun of the two opposite inside angles:

5x = 120 + x

Subtract 1 x from both sides:

4x = 120

Divide both sides by 4:

X = 30

The answer is D. 30

Answer:

a. 1/2

b. 1 hair cut

c. 2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

4/8 divde by 4 to simplify and that gets you 1/2

8/4 is 2 so he does one hair cut every two hours

so you know how many he can do in 2 hours so add it up. It’s going to be 2 people in four hours so it will be half a hair cut in 5 hours

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

L'= 3, -3             M'= -3, -6          N'= -3, 3

Answer:

A. 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 86.08, hope this helps.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$86.08

Step-by-step explanation:

If Dan makes $5.38 for HALF an hour how much does he make for a full hour? He makes $10.76 for an entire hour.

$10.76 x 8= $86.08

Answer:

What is the length of the BC line? It is not clear in the figure

Answer:

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

as the two triangles are similar

So the equation is

5+x/12=5/10

50+10x=60

10x=60-50

10x=10

x=10/10

therefore

x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

mass of Freight car=25tons

the rate of filling is 1/3 ton per minute

let the time taken to fill the freight car be x

and the total mass after x minute be y

Hence the mass as a function of time is expressed as

y=25+1/3x----------1

mas of dump truck=55tons

rate of being emptied= 1/6 tons per minute

let the time taken to empty the dump truck be x

and the total mass after x minute be y

Hence the mass as a function of time is expressed as

y=55-1/6x----------2

Step two:

equating equations 1 and 2,

1. The tucks will weigh the same in

55-1/6x=25+1/3x

collect like terms

55-25=1/3x+1/6x

30=(2+1/6)x

30=3/6x

30=1/2x

30=0.5x

x=30/0.5

x=60min

or

1 hour

The tucks will weigh the same in  60minutes(1 hour)

2. How much coal will be in each truck when they weigh the same?

For the  train freight car, the weight after 60 minutes is

y=25+1/3(60)

y=25+20

y=55tons

55-25=20tons

There will be 20tons

For the  dump truck, the weight after 60 minutes is

y=55-1/6(60)

y=55-10

y=45tons

55-45=10tons

There will be 10tons

Answer:

3  1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

I used my calculator, but convert to the greatest common factor which is 15 and multiply, then simplify to 16/5 and turn to a proper fraction 3 1/5.

Answer:

=  16/5  =  3  1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Since it is not an equation you would combine like terms and the answer would be 3x + (-24)

Step-by-step explanation:

There is no answer technically, you're just simplifying

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you can't solve you don't know what X is so x+ 2x + (-24) is the answer

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

 5/14

Step-by-step explanation:

             3--2=5

             6--8=14  

Answer:

$26 dollars

Step-by-step explanation: when you divide 156 divided by 6 you get 26

Answer:

26 dollars per ticket

Step-by-step explanation:

156/6=26

26x6=156

Answer:

B. is your answer dear

Step-by-step explanation:

0.44*50+23

22+23 = 45

hope you got it.

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[tex] \frac{ {6}^{8} \times {6}^{3} }{ {6}^{5} } = \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ {6}^{8 + 3} }{ {6}^{5} } = \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ {6}^{11} }{ {6}^{5} } = \\ [/tex]

[tex] {6}^{11} \times {6}^{ - 5} = [/tex]

[tex] {6}^{11 - 5} = [/tex]

[tex] {6}^{6} [/tex]

Thus ;

[tex] {6}^{[6]} \\ [/tex]

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Answer:

what is you exact question?

Answer: = 4x² - x - 3

(4x+3)(x -1 ) = 4x² + 3x - 4x - 3 = 4x² - x - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

267000 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]2.89\ \text{s}[/tex]

0.11 seconds

[tex]37.4\ \text{m}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]t_1[/tex] = Time taken by the pebble to hit the water

[tex]t_2[/tex] = Time taken by the sound to travel to the observer

[tex]t_1+t_2[/tex] = Time taken by the observer to listen to the splash after stone is thrown = 3 s

[tex]t_1=3-t_2[/tex]

a = g = Acceleration due to gravity = [tex]9.81\ \text{m/s}^2[/tex]

[tex]u_s[/tex] = Speed of sound = 340 m/s

The distance traveled by the pebble

[tex]s=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}at_1^2\\\Rightarrow s=0+\dfrac{1}{2}\times9.81(3-t_2)^2\\\Rightarrow s=4.905(9+t_2^2-6t_2^2)[/tex]

Distance traveled by the sound

[tex]s=u_st\\\Rightarrow s=340\times t_2[/tex]

The distance traveled by the sound and the pebble is equal

[tex]4.905(9+t_2^2-6t_2)=340\times t_2\\\Rightarrow 9+t_2^2-6t_2=\dfrac{340}{4.905}t_2\\\Rightarrow 9+t_2^2-6t_2=69.32t_2\\\Rightarrow t_2^2-75.32t_2+9=0\\\Rightarrow t_2=\frac{-\left(-75.32\right)\pm \sqrt{\left(-75.32\right)^2-4\times \:1\times \:9}}{2\times \:1}\\\Rightarrow t_2=75.2,0.11[/tex]

Since [tex]t_1+t_2=3[/tex] the value of [tex]t_2[/tex] cannot be greater than 3.

So, time taken by the sound to reach the observer is 0.11 seconds.

Time taken by the pebble to hit the water is [tex]t_1=3-t_2=3-0.11=2.89\ \text{s}[/tex]

Depth of the well is [tex]s=340t_2=340\times 0.11=37.4\ \text{m}[/tex]

Answer:

B ≥ 209

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the equation - 25b + 525 ≥ 5750  .      

Comment if I solved it incorrectly ;-;  

Answer:

Opposite sides are congruent

Step-by-step explanation:

First off the equals sign with the wave over it means congruent. It wouldn't be either answer with diagonals because the segments that are congruent are sides of the parallelogram not diagonals. Next even though the congruent sides are parallel by providing the information (AB being congruent to CD and AD bring congruent to CB) opposite are parallel wouldn't be the answer because of what you are given.

Sorry if its wordy I hope this helps : )

Answer: That used to happen to me but if you answer peoples questions it doesnt do that anymore because you are helping out

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

you have to use ads wich is stupid

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: I believe it would be 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

domain is all the values that go into a function, and the range is all the values that come out.

Answer:

Domain: -6 <= x <= 3 and Range -9 <= y <= 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain is x

Range is y

(x, y)

The smallest x is -6

The largest x is 3

The smallest y is -9

The largest y is 5

Answer:

some thing is broken man

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it's the first option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

The . 8 would round up making the 9 a 10

So the answer is ten

Answer:how many total ounces are in this container?

Step-by-step explanation: