a. Net income after tax $546,500
b. Current income tax payable: $336,450 (current classification)
a) Reconciliation for accounting income to taxable income for 2022:
Net income before tax $750,000
Add: Non-taxable dividends 7,500
Deduct: Non-deductible fines 0
Deduct: Capital cost allowance (CCA) 0
Taxable income $757,500
b) All tax related journal entries for 2022:
i) Income tax expense:
Taxable income for 2022 $757,500
Tax rate x 30%
Current income tax payable $227,250
Less: Income tax receivable (16,250)
Current income tax expense $211,000
ii) Deferred tax asset:
Subscription revenue timing difference $247,000 x (30% tax rate) $74,100
Depreciation timing difference ($357,000 - $238,000) x (30% tax rate) $35,100
Total deferred tax asset $109,200
iii) Income tax payable:
Current income tax payable $227,250
Add: Increase in deferred tax asset $109,200
Income tax payable $336,450
c) Determine the December 31, 2022 balance in deferred tax asset or liability related to each timing difference as well as the current tax payable. Discuss whether the amounts are shown as current or non-current classification:
Deferred tax asset related to subscription revenue timing difference: $38,400 + $74,100 = $112,500 (non-current classification)
Deferred tax asset related to depreciation timing difference: $0 + $35,100 = $35,100 (non-current classification)
Current income tax payable: $336,450 (current classification)
d) Provide the income statement presentation beginning with net income before tax for 2022:
Net income before tax $750,000
Add: Non-taxable dividends 7,500
Deduct: Non-deductible fines 0
Deduct: Capital cost allowance (CCA) 0
Taxable income $757,500
Less: Income tax expense (211,000)
Net income after tax $546,500
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Pacifica Papers Inc. needed to conserve cash, so instead of a cash dividend the board of directors declared a 5% common share dividend on June 30, 2020, distributable on July 15, 2020. Because performance during 2020 was better than expected, the company's board of directors declared a $0.95 per share cash dividend on November 15, 2020, payable on December 1, 2020, to shareholders of record on November 30, 2020. The equity section of Pacifica's December 31, 2019, balance sheet showed: Common shares, unlimited shares authorize shares issued and outstanding Retained earnings $7,310,000 2,800,000 Required: 1. Journalize the declaration of the share dividend. The market prices of the shares were $17.90 on June 30, 2020, and $19.90 on July 15, 2020. Assume share dividends account is used when dividends are declared. Answer is complete and correct. No General Journal Debit Credit No | 1 Date June 30, 2020 760,7501 Share dividends Common share dividends distributable 760,750 2. Journalize the declaration of the cash dividend. Assume share dividends account is used when dividends are declared. Answer is not complete. Debit Credit No 11 Date General Journal November 15, 202 Cash dividends Common shares dividends payable 3. Prepare the equity section of the balance sheet at December 31, 2020, assuming profit earned during the year was $2,730,000. Answer is not complete. PACIFICA PAPERS INC. Equity Section of Balance Sheet December 31, 2020 Contributed capital: Common shares, unlimited shares authorized, 892,500 shares issued and outstanding Retained earnings Total equity 0
The market price of the shares on June 30, 2020, was $17.90.
1. To journalize the declaration of the share dividend on June 30, 2020:
Date: June 30, 2020
Debit: Share Dividends - $760,750
Credit: Common Share Dividends Distributable - $760,750
The market price of the shares on June 30, 2020, was $17.90.
2. To journalize the declaration of the cash dividend on November 15, 2020:
Date: November 15, 2020
Debit: Cash Dividends - $847,375 ($0.95 * 892,500 shares)
Credit: Cash Dividends Payable - $847,375
3. To prepare the equity section of the balance sheet at December 31, 2020:
PACIFICA PAPERS INC.
Equity Section of Balance Sheet
December 31, 2020
Contributed Capital:
Common Shares, unlimited shares authorized, 892,500 shares issued and outstanding - $8,070,750 ($7,310,000 + $760,750)
Retained Earnings:
Beginning Retained Earnings - $2,800,000
Add: Profit earned during the year - $2,730,000
Less: Cash Dividends - $847,375
Ending Retained Earnings - $4,682,625
Total Equity:
Contributed Capital + Retained Earnings
$8,070,750 + $4,682,625 = $12,753,375
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_____ is a generic term used to refer to organizational decisions that affect the nature of the vacancies for which people are recruited.
A) Budgetary policies
B) Personnel policies
C) Judicial policies
D) Fiscal policies
E) Monetary policies
The answer to the question is B) Personnel policies. Personnel policies are decisions made by organizations that affect the nature of the job vacancies for which people are recruited. These policies can include things like job requirements, compensation packages, and employee benefits.
Personnel policies can be broken down into various categories, such as recruitment policies, retention policies, and performance management policies. Recruitment policies determine the criteria used to identify potential candidates for job openings. Retention policies focus on strategies to keep current employees satisfied and motivated. Performance management policies set expectations and standards for employee performance and provide feedback and recognition for achievement.
Overall, personnel policies are a critical component of organizational management as they shape the workforce and contribute to the success of the organization.
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What increases the likelihood of trainee auditors reporting an ethical violation by an audit partner?
A. A reward exists for whistleblowing
B. Firm quality controls exist
C. Formal structures for whistleblowing exist
D. Informal structures for whistleblowing exist
There are several factors that can increase the likelihood of trainee auditors reporting an ethical violation by an audit partner. Firstly, the existence of a reward for whistleblowing can be a powerful incentive for trainee auditors to report any misconduct they witness.
Secondly, firm quality controls can help create an ethical culture that encourages whistleblowing and discourages unethical behavior. Thirdly, formal structures for whistleblowing, such as hotlines or anonymous reporting channels, can provide trainee auditors with a safe and secure way to report any ethical violations they may come across. Finally, informal structures for whistleblowing, such as mentoring or peer support programs, can also play an important role in encouraging trainee auditors to report ethical violations.It is important to note that an ethical culture should be fostered and maintained within audit firms to ensure that ethical violations are not tolerated. The more open and transparent a firm is about its ethical standards, the more likely it is that trainee auditors will feel comfortable reporting any unethical behavior they witness. Ultimately, the goal should be to create an environment in which ethical behavior is not only expected, but rewarded, and unethical behavior is not tolerated. By doing so, trainee auditors will be more likely to report ethical violations, and the overall quality of audits will be improved.
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Parent Corporation’s current-year taxable income included $100,000 net income from operations and a $10,000 net long-term capital gain. Parent also made a $5,000 charitable contribution. SubCo generated $45,000 income from operations and incurred a $2,000 short-term capital loss. a. How much is Parent’s separate taxable income? Parent's separate taxable income is $_________. b. How much is SubCo’s separate taxable income? SubCo's separate taxable income is $_________ c. How much is consolidated taxable income? The consolidated taxable income is $_________.
Parent Corporation’s separate taxable income is: $105,000.
Parent Corporation’s net income from operations is $100,000, and they also have a net long-term capital gain of $10,000. However, they made a charitable contribution of $5,000, which is deductible on their tax return. Therefore, their separate taxable income is $105,000 ($100,000 + $10,000 - $5,000).
b. SubCo’s separate taxable income is $43,000.
SubCo generated $45,000 income from operations but incurred a $2,000 short-term capital loss. The capital loss can be used to offset the income from operations, resulting in SubCo's separate taxable income of $43,000 ($45,000 - $2,000).
c. The consolidated taxable income is $148,000.
To calculate the consolidated taxable income, we add the separate taxable incomes of Parent Corporation and SubCo ($105,000 + $43,000 = $148,000).
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I prices haver 220 percent since the base year, the current level of the CPI isMulteChow a.100 b.220 c.20 d.320
The current level of the CPI if prices have increased by 220 percent since the base year is 320. The correct answer is d. 320.
Here's the step-by-step explanation:
1. Understand that CPI (Consumer Price Index) is used to measure the changes in prices over time, with the base year as the reference point (CPI in the base year is usually 100).
2. Since prices have increased by 220 percent since the base year, you'll calculate the increase in CPI by multiplying the base year CPI by the percentage increase:
Increase in CPI = Base Year CPI × (Percentage Increase / 100)
= 100 × (220 / 100)
= 100 × 2.20
= 220
3. To find the current level of CPI, you'll add the increase in CPI to the base year CPI:
Current CPI = Base Year CPI + Increase in CPI
= 100 + 220
= 320
So, the correct answer is d. 320.
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Which cloud services characteristic best describes the nature of rapid elasticity?
The cloud services characteristic that best describes the nature of rapid elasticity is "scalability."
Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud service to quickly and easily adjust its resources to meet the changing needs of its users. This is achieved through the process of rapid elasticity, which allows for resources to be provisioned or released on-demand, depending on the user's requirements.
This ensures that cloud services can efficiently handle fluctuations in workload and resource usage, without any manual intervention.
In summary, the characteristic of cloud services that best describes rapid elasticity is scalability, as it allows for the quick and easy adjustment of resources to meet the changing demands of users.
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In order to continue working, what should a food employee with a minor cut on their hand do?
A. Not allowed to work with minor cut
B. Must be checked by a doctor first
C. Nothing needs to be done
D. Cover cut with a water tight bandage and a glove
option D is the best alternative of this situation. To continue working safely, a food employee with a minor cut on their hand should cover the cut with a water tight bandage and wear a glove to maintain food safety and prevent contamination.
a food employee with a minor cut on their hand should do in order to continue working is to cover the cut with a water tight bandage and a glove. This is important to prevent any potential contamination of the food being prepared. even a minor cut can expose the food to harmful bacteria and germs from the employee's hand. By covering the cut with a water tight bandage and a glove, the risk of contamination is greatly reduce. it is important for food employees to take proper precautions when dealing with minor cuts or injuries in order to maintain food safety standards. Covering the cut with a water tight bandage and a glove is a simple and effective solution to continue working while minimizing any potential risks.
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if the quantity of a good demanded by a typical consumer INCREASES in response to the growth in purchases of other consumers; makes market demand more elastic, is called ?
Positive cross-price elasticity of demand. In Positive cross-price elasticity of demand, quantity of a good demanded by a typical consumer increases in response to the growth in purchases of other consumers making market demand more elastic.
This phenomenon is known as cross-price elasticity of demand. It refers to the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of one good to a change in the price of another good. When the quantity of a good demanded by a typical consumer increases in response to the growth in purchases of other consumers, it indicates a positive cross-price elasticity of demand and makes the market demand more elastic. There are different types of demand, including price elasticity of demand, income elasticity of demand, and cross-price elasticity of demand.
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The situation you are describing is called the "network effect." This effect occurs when the demand for a product or service increases as more people use it. As more consumers use the product, the value of the product increases, which can result in more people joining the network, further increasing demand.
The network effect can be seen in many industries, including social media, telecommunications, and e-commerce. For example, as more people join a social media platform, the value of the platform increases because there are more people to connect with and more content to consume. This, in turn, can attract more users, creating a positive feedback loop that can lead to exponential growth. The network effect can make market demand more elastic because as more consumers join the network, the demand for the product becomes less sensitive to changes in price. This is because the value of the product to the consumer increases as more people use it, making them less likely to switch to a competing product, even if the price increases slightly. In summary, the network effect is a phenomenon where the demand for a product or service increases as more people use it, making market demand more elastic. This effect is seen in many industries and can create a positive feedback loop that can lead to exponential growth.
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Transfer Pricing – Range of acceptable transfer prices Division A manufactures electronic circuit boards. The boards can be sold either to Division B of the same company or to outside customers. Last year, the following activity occurred in Division A: Market price per circuit board Variable cost per circuit board $ 140.32 $ 116.00 Number of circuit boards: Sold to outside customers each year 14,400 Required by Division B 7,100 The circuit boards purchased by Division B are plentiful, they used in an electronic instrument manufactured by division B (one board per instrument). The completed instruments sell for $930 each. Required: 1. If division A has total capacity of 50,000 units, what is the range of acceptable transfer prices? 2. If division A has capacity of 20,500 units, what is the range of acceptable transfer prices?
The acceptable transfer price range would be between the variable cost per circuit board and the market price per circuit board, since any transfer price within this range would result in a profit for Division A. The range of acceptable transfer prices would be between the variable cost per circuit board and the market price, depending on the demand from both customers.
Step 1. To calculate the range of acceptable transfer prices for Division A, we need to consider the opportunity cost of selling the circuit boards to outside customers versus selling them to Division B.
If Division A sells all 21,500 units to outside customers at the market price of $140.32 per board, the total revenue would be $2,022,880 (14,400 x $140.32). However, if Division A sells 7,100 units to Division B, it would earn revenue of $987,300 (7,100 x $140.32), which is lower than the market price.
Therefore, the acceptable transfer price range would be between the variable cost per circuit board ($116.00) and the market price per circuit board ($140.32), since any transfer price within this range would result in a profit for Division A.
Step 2. If Division A has capacity of only 20,500 units, it cannot sell all of its output to both outside customers and Division B at the same time.
In this case, the range of acceptable transfer prices would depend on the demand for the circuit boards from both customers. If Division B requires all 20,500 units, then the transfer price would need to be higher than the variable cost per circuit board ($116.00) in order to cover the fixed costs and earn a profit. However, if Division B only requires 7,100 units, then the remaining 13,400 units could be sold to outside customers at the market price ($140.32), so the transfer price to Division B would need to be lower than the market price in order to remain competitive.
Therefore, the range of acceptable transfer prices would be between the variable cost per circuit board and the market price, depending on the demand from both customers.
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The intercompany gain on sale of depreciable assets downstream is realized when:
- The subsidiary resells the depreciable assets to parent
- The subsidiary abandon the depreciable assets
- The parent sold the depreciable assets to subsidiary
- The subsidiary resells the depreciable assets to outside party
The intercompany gain on sale of depreciable assets downstream is realized when the subsidiary resells the depreciable assets to the parent (option A) or when the subsidiary resells the depreciable assets to an outside party(option D). In both cases, the subsidiary has effectively converted the asset into cash, and any gain or loss on the sale is recognized.
Depreciable assets are those assets that can lose value over time due to wear and tear or obsolescence. When these assets are sold or transferred between companies, there may be a gain or loss on the transaction that must be accounted for. In the case of intercompany transactions, where the buyer and seller are related entities, it is important to understand when and how these gains are realized.
If the subsidiary abandons the depreciable assets or the parent sells the depreciable assets to the subsidiary, there is no intercompany gain on sale to be realized. Abandonment of assets typically results in a loss, and the sale of assets from parent to subsidiary would be recorded at the transfer price, with any gains or losses being deferred until the subsidiary resells the assets.
In summary, the intercompany gain on sale of depreciable assets downstream is realized when the subsidiary resells the assets to the parent or an outside party. It is important to properly account for these transactions to ensure accurate financial reporting and tax compliance. Therefore, option A and D must be selected for the right answer.
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In the context of assigning tasks within an organization, which of the following statements is true of specialization?
Specialization refers to the process of dividing work into specific and specialized tasks or roles, which allows individuals or teams to become experts in their assigned area. In the context of assigning tasks within an organization, specialization can lead to increased efficiency, productivity, and quality of work. This is because specialized individuals are able to focus on their area of expertise and perform their tasks with greater skill and speed. However, specialization can also lead to a lack of flexibility and adaptability, as individuals may be less capable of performing tasks outside of their specialized area. Additionally, too much specialization within an organization can result in silos and a lack of cross-functional collaboration. Therefore, it is important for organizations to strike a balance between specialization and generalization in their task assignments.
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An____ ______ creates a situation where you must choose between two equally unsatisfactory alternatives
An ethical dilemma creates a situation where you must choose between two equally unsatisfactory alternatives. In such scenarios, both options have undesirable consequences, making it difficult to determine the best course of action.
Ethical dilemmas often arise in professional or personal situations, where individuals are faced with conflicting moral principles, values, or responsibilities. In dealing with ethical dilemmas, it is essential to consider various factors such as the potential impact of each decision on the involved parties, as well as any legal or ethical guidelines that may apply. It is crucial to weigh the pros and cons of each alternative, and in some cases, seek guidance from trusted advisors or colleagues.
Ultimately, the decision-maker must choose a course of action that aligns with their personal or professional ethical values, even if the outcome is not ideal. It is essential to be aware of the potential consequences and accept responsibility for the chosen path.
To summarize, ethical dilemmas create situations in which individuals must choose between two equally unsatisfactory alternatives. The decision-making process can be challenging and complex, requiring careful consideration of various factors and the potential impact of each choice. It is crucial to make decisions that align with one's ethical values, and accept the responsibility for the chosen path.
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Which lot-sizing procedures are suitable for reorder point planning?
a. daily lot size
b. fixed order quantity
c. monthly lot size
d. lot for lot order quantity
e. replenish to maximum stock level
The lot-sizing procedures that are suitable for reorder point planning include fixed order quantity and lot for lot order quantity.
These procedures ensure that the inventory is replenished in the appropriate amount when the reorder point is reached, without overstocking or understocking the inventory. The daily lot size and monthly lot size may not be suitable for reorder point planning as they may result in unnecessary inventory holding costs. Replenish to maximum stock level may also not be suitable for reorder point planning as it may result in overstocking of inventory.
In the context of reorder point planning, suitable lot-sizing procedures include:
b. Fixed order quantity
d. Lot for lot order quantity
e. Replenish to maximum stock level
These methods help maintain optimal inventory levels by triggering orders when the reorder point is reached.
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The proslavery argument that slavery made economic independence among whites possible:
was mainly advanced by promoters of industrialization. Was widely accepted by southern whites. Was mainly advanced by white northerners. Was only accepted by the southern planter class
The proslavery argument that slavery made economic independence among whites possible was widely accepted by southern whites. Thus, option B is correct.
The proslavery argument was on the belief that the economy of the South will collapse if there will be no Slavery. Then, they should depend on the North. Proponents of slavery argued that slavery is the most essential source of labor for lower economic costs.
The proslavery argument states that some advocates of industrialization promoted the growth of slavery which further promoted economic growth. But his agreement was not widely accepted, but only the Southern planter class accepted and maintained this slavery.
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The complete question is:
The proslavery argument that slavery made economic independence among whites possible:
a. was mainly advanced by promoters of industrialization.
b. Was widely accepted by southern whites
c. Was mainly advanced by white northerners.
d. Was only accepted by the southern planter class
The marketing mix is often regarded as the least important ingredient of marketing
False
True
False. The marketing mix is often regarded as one of the most important concepts in marketing.
it involves the tactical decisions that a company must make in order to promote its product or service effectively. The marketing mix consists of the four Ps: product, price, promotion, and place.e marketing mix is a fundamental concept in marketing that refers to the set of tools or tactics used by a company to promote its products or services in the market. It includes four main components known as the "Four Ps":
Product: refers to the goods or services a company offers to satisfy the needs and wants of its target customers.
Price: refers to the amount of money a customer pays to purchase a product or service.
Promotion: refers to the activities a company uses to communicate the benefits of its products or services to customers and to persuade them to make a purchase.
Place: refers to the location where customers can purchase a product or service and the methods used to distribute it.
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Sunland Company uses 11100 units of Part A in producing its products. A supplier offers to make Part A for $7. Sunland Company has relevant costs of $9 a unit to manufacture Part A If there is excess capacity, the relevant cost of buying Part A from the supplier is O $0. O $77700. O $99900. O $22200
The relevant cost of buying Part A from the supplier is $77700 if there is excess capacity. By comparing the relevant cost of producing Part A in-house to the cost of buying it from the supplier, Sunland Company can determine whether it is more cost-effective to outsource this part of their production
Sunland Company currently uses 11100 units of Part A, and they have relevant costs of $9 per unit to manufacture it. This means that their total relevant cost for producing 11100 units of Part A is:
$9 per unit x 11100 units = $99900
If the supplier offers to make Part A for $7 per unit, and Sunland Company chooses to buy it instead of producing it in-house, they would be saving $2 per unit. This means that their total relevant cost for buying 11100 units of Part A from the supplier would be:
$7 per unit x 11100 units = $77700
Since this cost is lower than the relevant cost of producing Part A in-house, it would be more cost-effective for Sunland Company to buy Part A from the supplier if there is excess capacity.
Therefore option "$77700" is correct.
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At 30 June 2002 a company had K1m 8% loan notes in issue, interest being paid half- yearly on 30 June and 31 December.
On 30 September 2002 the company redeemed K250, 000 of these loan notes at par, paying interest due to that date.
On 1 April 2003 the company issued K500, 000 7% loan notes, interest payable half-yearly on 31 March and 30 September.
Calculate the figure should appear in the company's statement of comprehensive income for interest payable in the year ended 30 June 2003
The figure that should appear in the company's statement of comprehensive income for interest payable in the year ended 30 June 2003 is K57,500.
To calculate the figure that should appear in the company's statement of comprehensive income for interest payable in the year ended 30 June 2003:We need to consider the following:
1. Interest paid on the K1m 8% loan notes for the period from 1 January 2003 to 30 June 2003:
The total interest payable on the K1m loan notes at 8% per annum is K80,000. Since interest is paid half-yearly, the interest payable for the period from 1 January 2003 to 30 June 2003 is K40,000.
2. Interest paid on the K500,000 7% loan notes for the period from 1 April 2003 to 30 June 2003:
The total interest payable on the K500,000 loan notes at 7% per annum is K35,000. Since interest is paid half-yearly, the interest payable for the period from 1 April 2003 to 30 June 2003 is K17,500.
3. Interest paid on the K250,000 loan notes redeemed on 30 September 2002:
Since the K250,000 loan notes were redeemed at par, the interest payable on these notes up to the redemption date was already paid. Therefore, we dont need to include any interest payable on these notes in the calculation.
Adding the interest payable on the K1m 8% loan notes and the K500,000 7% loan notes, we get:
K40,000 + K17,500 = K57,500
Therefore, the figure that should appear in the company's statement of comprehensive income for interest payable in the year ended 30 June 2003 is K57,500.
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23. expected inflation rates (lo4, cfa4) based on the spot rates in problem 21, and assuming a constant real interest rate of 2 percent, what are the expected inflation rates for the next four years? hint: use the fisher hypothesis and the unbiased expectations theory. hint: use the fisher hypothesis and the unbiased expectations theory.
To calculate the expected inflation rates for the next 4 years based on the spot rates & assuming a constant real interest rate of 2%, we need to use the Fisher hypothesis and the unbiased expectations theory.
The Fisher hypothesis states that the nominal interest rate is equal to the real interest rate plus the expected inflation rate.
Therefore, we can rearrange this equation to solve for the expected inflation rate.
Using the unbiased expectations theory, we assume that the market expectations for future inflation rates are unbiased and efficient.
Based on this, we can use the spot rates to calculate the market's expectations for future nominal interest rates and, subsequently, the expected inflation rates.
Using this approach, we can estimate the expected inflation rates for the next four years, which can be useful in financial planning and decision-making.
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borrowing money is required whenever 1. the cash excess equals the minimum required cash balance 2. there is a cash deficiency
Borrowing money is necessary when there is a cash deficiency. This means that the company's cash balance is lower than what is required to meet its financial obligations.
In such situations, the company may have to borrow money from external sources, such as banks or investors, to bridge the gap between its current cash balance and the amount it needs to meet its financial obligations. However, borrowing money is not required when the cash excess equals the minimum required cash balance.
This means that the company has enough cash on hand to meet its financial obligations without having to borrow from external sources. It is important for companies to maintain an adequate cash balance to avoid financial distress and maintain their operations smoothly.
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6. Allan Merchants uses machine-hours as the only overhead cost-allocation base and allocates manufacturing overhead costs based on budgeted rate. The following data has been provided for the year 2021: the direct cost rate for one of the products is $7 per unit, and the selling price of the product is $28. Other information for 2021 include: the budgeted manufacturing overhead costs are $259031; and budgeted machine hours are 38335; and the actual manufacturing overhead costs are $331420 and actual machine hours are 40182. Compute the percentage of profit margin earned if each unit of the product requires 2 machine-hours?
The manufacturing overhead budget and an overhead cost allocation base is used by Allan Merchants. The percentage of profit margin earned,has computed to be of 50.86% for the year 2021 as every unit produced requires 2 machine hours.
Using the budgeted rate, we can calculate the budgeted manufacturing overhead rate per machine-hour as follows:
Budgeted manufacturing overhead rate per machine-hour = Budgeted manufacturing overhead costs / Budgeted machine hours
= $259,031 / 38,335
= $6.76 per machine-hour
We can then calculate the total manufacturing overhead costs based on the actual machine hours used:
Total manufacturing overhead costs = Actual machine hours * Budgeted manufacturing overhead rate per machine-hour
= 40,182 * $6.76
= $271,606.32
Next, we can calculate the total cost per unit of the product:
Total cost per unit = Direct cost rate + Manufacturing overhead rate
= $7 + $6.76
= $13.76 per unit
Finally, we can calculate the profit margin per unit:
Profit margin per unit = Selling price - Total cost per unit
= $28 - $13.76
= $14.24 per unit
Since each unit of the product requires 2 machine-hours, the profit margin percentage would be:
Profit margin percentage = (Profit margin per unit / Selling price) * 100%
= ($14.24 / $28) * 100%
= 50.86%
Therefore, the percentage of profit margin earned is 50.86%.
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T/F a multiple predetermined overhead rate system is more accurate than a plant wide overhead rate system because itreflects differences in how overhead costs are incurred within departments
The statement " A multiple predetermined overhead rate system is more accurate than a plant wide overhead rate system because it reflects differences in how overhead costs are incurred within departments" is true This allows for a more accurate reflection of differences in the overhead costs incurred within each department.
In contrast, a plant-wide overhead rate system allocates overhead costs to all departments based on a single predetermined overhead rate, which assumes that all departments incur overhead costs in the same way. This can lead to distorted allocation of costs, particularly if different departments have different cost drivers or if they use resources in different ways.
Therefore, a multiple predetermined overhead rate system is generally preferred when there are significant differences in the way overhead costs are incurred within departments.
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cash basis accounting recognizes (equity/revenues/expenses) when cash is received and records (revenues/expenses/liabilities) when cash is paid.
Cash basis accounting is a method of accounting that recognizes revenues and expenses when cash is received or paid, rather than when they are earned or incurred.
This means that revenues are recorded when cash is received and expenses are recorded when cash is paid out.
For example, if a company sells a product on credit, it would not record the revenue until the cash is received from the customer.
Cash basis accounting does not recognize equity transactions, such as the issuance of stock or the payment of dividends, because these transactions do not involve cash changing hands. It also does not record liabilities until they are paid with cash.
While cash basis accounting is simpler than accrual basis accounting, which recognizes revenues and expenses when they are earned or incurred, it can be less accurate and can lead to distortion of a company's financial results.
This is because cash basis accounting does not take into account the timing of transactions or the matching of expenses to the revenues they generate.
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Kathy is planning a charity event at her school and made a list of project deliverables and project requirements that provide the experience that everyone is expecting.Which of the following is a project deliverable?
A.) Music that encourages dancing
B.) Printed copies of directions to the event
C.) A lawn large enough to accommodate games
D.) Decorations that adhere to the event's theme
A project deliverable is a tangible outcome or result that is produced as a part of a project. In the case of Kathy's charity event, the project deliverable would be an item or service that is produced or provided as a part of the event. Out of the options given, all four choices could potentially be a project deliverable.
Music that encourages dancing could be considered a project deliverable because it is an aspect of the event that is produced for the enjoyment and experience of the attendees.
Printed copies of directions to the event could also be considered a project deliverable because it is a tangible item that is provided as a part of the event to help attendees navigate and find the location.
A lawn large enough to accommodate games could be considered a project deliverable if it is an important aspect of the event and is specifically mentioned as a requirement for the success of the event.
Decorations that adhere to the event's theme could also be considered a project deliverable because they are a tangible outcome of the planning and preparation of the event.
In conclusion, all of the options listed could be considered project deliverables depending on the specific requirements and goals of the event. It is up to Kathy to determine which deliverables are necessary to provide the experience that everyone is expecting.
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Given the following information, what would the utilization be? Effective capacity is 20 units/day Design capacity is 75 units/day Actual output is 15 units/day O A 26.7% O B. 33.3% O 0.25% OD. 75% O
The utilization in this case would be 75%.
To calculate utilization, you'll need to divide Actual output by Effective capacity, and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage.
Given the information: Effective capacity is 20 units/day, Design capacity is 75 units/day, and Actual output is 15 units/day.
Step 1: Divide Actual output by Effective capacity.
Utilization = (Actual output) / (Effective capacity)
Utilization = (15 units/day) / (20 units/day)
Step 2: Calculate the utilization as a percentage.
Utilization = (15/20) * 100
Utilization = 0.75 * 100
Utilization = 75%
The utilization in this case would be 75% (option D).
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Jelly's corporation wants to have a weighted average cost of capital of 9.5 percent. The firm has an after-tax cost of debt of 6.5 percent and a cost of equity of 12.75 percent. a What debt-equity ratio is needed for the firm to achieve their targeted weighted average cost of capital?
a. .67
b. .84
c. .92
d. .76
e. 1.08
The debt-equity ratio needed for Jelly's Corporation to achieve their targeted weighted average cost of capital of 9.5 percent is approximately 1.08.
To determine the debt-equity ratio needed for Jelly's Corporation to achieve their targeted weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of 9.5 percent, we'll use the WACC formula:
WACC = (E/V) * Cost of Equity + (D/V) * After-tax Cost of Debt
where E is the market value of equity, D is the market value of debt, and V is the total value of the firm (E + D).
First, we'll solve for the debt-equity ratio (D/E) using the following equation:
9.5% = (E/V) * 12.75% + (D/V) * 6.5%
We know that V = E + D, so the equation becomes:
9.5% = (E/(E + D)) * 12.75% + (D/(E + D)) * 6.5%
To find the debt-equity ratio (D/E), we'll divide both sides by E:
(D/E) = (9.5% - 12.75%) / (6.5% - 9.5%)
(D/E) = (-3.25%) / (-3%)
(D/E) = 1.0833 (approximately)
Therefore, the debt-equity ratio needed for Jelly's Corporation to achieve their targeted weighted average cost of capital of 9.5 percent is approximately 1.08. Hence, the correct answer is e. 1.08.
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Project planning typically is:
a. done at the beginning of a project.
b. an iterative process involving multiple stakeholders.
c. done by the sales force.
d. the responsibility of the company president.
Project planning is an essential process that takes place at the beginning of a project. It involves defining the scope of the project, identifying the goals and objectives, determining the resources needed, creating a project schedule, and establishing a budget.
The purpose of project planning is to ensure that the project is properly structured and organized, with clearly defined objectives, timelines, and budget.
It also helps to identify potential risks and challenges that may arise during the project, so that they can be addressed proactively.
While project planning may involve input from multiple stakeholders, it is typically led by the project manager and the project team. It is a collaborative process that requires input from various departments within the organization, including sales, marketing, finance, and operations.
The company president may be involved in project planning as a key stakeholder or decision-maker, but it is not typically their responsibility to lead the planning process.
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Given the following information, what would efficiency be? Effective capacity = 90 units per day Design capacity = 100 units per day Utilization = 45% O A. 72% OB.45% OC. 88.9% OD.83.3% E. 60% OF. 80% O G. 50% OH. 90%
The efficiency in this scenario is 50% (option G). Efficiency is a measure of how well a process or system is performing in comparison to its effective capacity.
It can be calculated by dividing the actual output by the effective capacity and then multiplying by 100 to express the result as a percentage. In this case, the effective capacity is 90 units per day and the utilization is 45%.
To find the actual output, you can use the utilization formula:
Actual Output = Utilization × Design Capacity.
Utilization is 45%, or 0.45, and the design capacity is 100 units per day. Therefore, the actual output is 0.45 × 100 = 45 units per day.
Now that we have the actual output and the effective capacity, we can calculate the efficiency: Efficiency = (Actual Output / Effective Capacity) × 100. Efficiency = (45 / 90) × 100 = 50%.
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karen and steve are partners at an architecture firm. they are trying to determine which of them has a comparative advantage in building the 50 models required for a sales pitch to a prospective client. karen can build 10 models per hour. for other activities, she can bill clients $400 per hour. karen's opportunity cost of building models is per model. steve's opportunity cost of building models is 30% lower than karen's. however, as the senior partner, his billing rate is 25% higher. based on all of these facts, has a comparative advantage in building models.
Steve has a comparative advantage in building models since his opportunity cost is lower than Karen's. It would be more efficient for Steve to build the models required for the sales pitch, allowing Karen to focus on other activities that she can bill at a higher rate.
Comparative advantage refers to the ability of a person or a firm to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than others.
In this case, Karen and Steve are partners at an architecture firm, and they are trying to determine who has a comparative advantage in building 50 models required for a sales pitch to a prospective client.
Karen can build 10 models per hour, and her opportunity cost of building models is $40 per hour (assuming she could have billed clients $400 per hour for other activities).
On the other hand, Steve's opportunity cost of building models is 30% lower than Karen's, which means his opportunity cost is $28 per hour.
However, Steve's billing rate is 25% higher than Karen's, which means he can bill clients at a rate of $500 per hour. This implies that Steve's opportunity cost of building models is $37.50 per hour ($500/13.33 models per hour).
To determine who has a comparative advantage in building models, we need to compare their opportunity costs. Karen's opportunity cost of building models is $40/10 models per hour = $4 per model. Steve's opportunity cost of building models is $37.50/13.33 models per hour = $2.81 per model.
Based on this analysis, Steve has a comparative advantage in building models since his opportunity cost is lower than Karen's. Therefore, it would be more efficient for Steve to build the models required for the sales pitch, allowing Karen to focus on other activities that she can bill at a higher rate.
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in a continuous review system, the inventory level for an item is constantly monitored, and when the reorder point is reached, an order is released. to simplify the discussion of continuous review systems, it is assumed that the variables that underlie the system are constant.
Yes, that is correct. In a continuous review system, the inventory level for an item is regularly checked and tracked. When the inventory level reaches a predetermined reorder point, an order is released to replenish the inventory.
To make it easier to understand and analyze, it is often assumed that the variables that affect the system, such as lead time and demand, remain constant. However, in reality, these variables are subject to change and can affect the accuracy of the system's predictions. Therefore, it is important to regularly review and adjust the system to ensure it is functioning optimally.
In a continuous review system, the inventory level of an item is constantly monitored to ensure that stock is replenished in a timely manner. When the reorder point is reached, an order is released to replenish the stock. This system simplifies inventory management by assuming that the variables underlying the system, such as demand and lead time, remain constant. This allows for a more efficient and streamlined approach to maintaining optimal inventory levels.
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Interpersonal skills are an essential part of the Develop Project Team process. All of the following are examples of interpersonal skills except which? Influencing team building Reviewing performance Conflict management
Interpersonal skills are crucial for any successful project team. These skills enable team members to communicate effectively, collaborate efficiently, and manage conflicts constructively. The Develop Project Team process involves identifying, assessing, and improving the skills and competencies of team members. This process emphasizes the importance of interpersonal skills, which can be defined as the ability to interact and communicate effectively with others.
The examples of interpersonal skills mentioned in the question are influencing, team building, reviewing performance, and conflict management. Influencing involves the ability to persuade and negotiate with others, while team building is the process of creating a cohesive and collaborative team. Reviewing performance is the process of evaluating team members' work and providing constructive feedback. Conflict management is the ability to identify, address, and resolve conflicts within the team.
To answer the question directly, the example of interpersonal skills that is NOT mentioned in the list is not provided. Therefore, I cannot identify which interpersonal skill is not included in the list. However, it is important to note that other examples of interpersonal skills include active listening, empathy, problem-solving, and time management. All of these skills are crucial for effective communication, collaboration, and productivity within a project team.
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