Find the measure of 44.
s
24
158°
ts
64 = [?]

Answer: It looks like this expression is 16+2 times 36, so the answer is 18 times 36 also 88, they are both equivalent

Answer:

[tex] \large \boxed{y = - \frac{2}{3} x + 2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

both slopes multiply each others must equal to -1 for perpendicular.

[tex] \large{m_1m_2 = - 1}[/tex]

Let m1 = 3/2

[tex] \large{ \frac{3}{2} m_2 = - 1} \\ \large{3m_2 = - 2} \\ \large{m_2 = - \frac{2}{3} }[/tex]

Therefore -2/3 is perpendicular to 3/2. Because the line passes through (6,-2)

[tex] \large{y - y_1 = m(x - x_1)}[/tex]

Given (x1, y1) = ordered pair

Therefore (x1, y1) = (6,-2)

and m = - 2/3

[tex] \large{y + 2 = - \frac{2}{3} (x - 6)}[/tex]

Write in slope-intercept form.

[tex] \large{y = - \frac{2}{3} x + 4 - 2} \\ \large{y = - \frac{2}{3}x + 2}[/tex]

Answer:

Y=bx+c

Step-by-step explanation:

That should be right

Answer:

Y=bx+c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

F(x) = x^3  and G(x) = (4x)^3 − 5

so

G(x) = F(4x) -5

the visual effect is

1) shrink horizontally by 1/4

2) shift down by 5

therefore  

the answer is the option

D.The graph of G(x) is the graph of F(x) compressed horizontally and shifted 5 units down.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't see the triangle...

By the polynomial remainder theorem, the remainder is

f (2) = 2⁵ + 5×2³ + 4 = 32 + 40 + 4 = 76

(The theorem says a polynomial p(x) has remainder p(c) upon dividing it by x - c.)

Answer:

$490

Step-by-step explanation:

Since one hour of work is $12.25, 40 hours is $490.

12.25 x 40 = 490

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John 8:12 - Jesus spoke to the people once more and said, “I am the light of the world. If you follow me, you won’t have to walk in darkness, because you will have the light that leads to life.”

Philippians 2:7-8 - but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

Answer: it's 30 I rook the quiz and got 100

Step-by-step explanat

Answer:

There is a [tex]\frac{2}{21}[/tex] chance of picking caramel-filled chocolate.

Step-by-step explanation:

To set this up, you need to make it a fraction. The denominator of the fraction is how many total chocolates you can pick from. You can figure this out by adding all of the chocolate choices together:

68 hazelnut + 8 caramel + 8 orange = 84 chocolates.

The numerator is defined by the number of caramel chocolates, in this case it is 8. That means the fraction will look like:

[tex]\frac{8}{84}[/tex]

Now that can be simplified down. I divided the top and bottom both by 4 to get  [tex]\frac{2}{21}[/tex] and that is as far down as it can go. Therefore that is the probability you will get a caramel-filled chocolate.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

when i have one fruit and you have another fruit and we add them together they are gonna b two

ok

a I'm sure

14*7*8

Step-by-step explanation:

we should multiple everything

Answer:

Jimmy has 4805 left

Step-by-step explanation:

3.9% = 0.039

5000(0.039) = 195

Mandy took 195 pieces

5000 - 195 = 4805

Jimmy has 4805 left

Answer: it’s 3/4

Step-by-step explanation: you have to make the Denominator equal for all of them In order to be able to compare. So if you make the denominator equal to 36 you then have to multiply the numerator by the same number you did for the denominator. Once doing that you will find that 24/36 < 27/36 < 28/36

Plz brainliest.

Answer:

C) (-3,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

C) (-3,-1)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

he volume of the topsoil is

28 ft by 21 ft by 5/15 ft = 245 cubic feet

There are 27 cubic feet in one cubic yard.

245/27 = 9.074074074.... = 9.074

Need 9.25 = 9 and 1/4 cubic yards

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] - 12u + 13 = 8w - 3 \\ - 12u + 13 + 3 = 8w \\ - 12u + 16 = 8w \\ w = \frac{ - 12u + 16}{8} \\ w = \frac{ - 3}{2} u + 2[/tex]

I hope that is useful for you :)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (c)  more than one

Step-by-step explanation:

The shape of the triangle is specified by its angles, but not its size. An infinite number of triangles of various sizes can be constructed with those angles. The appropriate choice is ...

  more than one

Answer:

150.8 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Just write down the answer.

Answer:

∠QPT=122°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles along a straight line add up to 180. Therefore:

∠PRQ+∠PRS=180

∠PRQ+118=180

∠PRQ=180-118

∠PRQ=62°

All angles in a triangle add to 180. Therefore:

∠PQR+∠QPR+∠PRQ=180

60+∠QPR+62=180

∠QPR+122=180

∠QPR=58°

Angles along a straight line add to 180. Therefore:

∠QPT+∠QPR=180

∠QPT+58=180

∠QPT=122°

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

1-x>2

-x>2-1

-x>1

-x/-1>1/-1

x<-1

Answer:

[tex]x < - 1[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

first step

try to leave x's in your left and number in your right

-x > 2-1

-x>1

step 2

by moving the sign minus to right it will become plus

and the inequality sign will change also

so x<-1

the region will ( - infinity to -1 )

[tex]( - \infty - 1)[/tex]

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

a+b^2

= -3+(5^2)

= -3+25

=22

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that [tex]n = 12[/tex]

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256[/tex]

[tex]P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127[/tex]

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Answer:

Area =L×w

84×18y =L×w

by comparison

L =84 and w=18y

Answer:

4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distance formula

d = [tex]\sqrt{(x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2}[/tex]

Plug in the points

d = [tex]\sqrt{(-4 - (-8))^2 + (3 - 3)^2}[/tex]

d = [tex]\sqrt{(4)^2 + (0)^2}[/tex]

d = [tex]\sqrt{16}[/tex]

d = 4

So, the distance between the pair of points is 4 units

Answer:

4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\large{ \sqrt{ {(x_2 - x_1)}^{2} + {(y_2 - y_1)}^{2} } }[/tex]

The formula above is the formula of distance between two points.

Substitute the ordered pairs in.

[tex] \large{ \sqrt{ {( - 4 + 8)}^{2} + {(3 - 3)}^{2} } } \\ \large{ \sqrt{ {4}^{2} + 0 } } = \sqrt{16} = 4[/tex]

Therefore, the distance between two points is 4 units.

Answer:(2,0) x=2,y=0

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your system by elimination.

−x+y=−2;2x−3y=4

Multiply the first equation by 2,and multiply the second equation by 1.

2(−x+y=−2)

1(2x−3y=4)

Becomes:

−2x+2y=−4

2x−3y=4

Add these equations to eliminate x:

−y=0

Then solve−y=0 for y:

−y=0

−y/−1 =0/−1

(Divide both sides by -1)

y=0

Now that we've found y let's plug it back in to solve for x.

Write down an original equation:

−x+y=−2

Substitute0foryin−x+y=−2:

−x+0=−2

−x=−2(Simplify both sides of the equation)

−x/−1 = −2/−1

(Divide both sides by -1)

x=2

Answer:

$2.30

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply 23 by .10 to get 2.3

2.3 is 2 dollars and 30 cents

Answer:

$2.30

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 23 by the decimal form of 10% (0.10)

23*0.10=2.3

Answer:b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

because it has two parallel side and and other are just lines but being quadrilateral its sum is 360