Wilkins and franklin studied the structure of dna using X-ray diffraction, a technique to examine molecules, and helped watson and crick determined that the shape of the molecules was a Double Helix.
X-rays diffraction through the molecule yielded a shadow picture of the molecule's structure by the X-rays bounced off its component parts.In 1953, this technique was discovered by Watson and Crick about DNA that marked a milestone of science and gave rise to modern molecular biology.
X-ray diffraction is defines as a widely used technique to assess the crystallinity and structure of solid samples. The process of scattering in which X-rays are scattered by the electrons of atoms present in the sample without changing the wavelength.It is the optical power instrument's ability to produce separate images of two adjacent points.
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The dominant allele for dimples is D. What genetic condition does an individual with the alleles dd have?
Answer:
The genotic condition I a
3. Jane has been challenged by her teacher to create a design based on the successes of nature'sdesign. Her assignment includes all parts of the design process. Jane must explore the ecosystemsaround her to make observations, create a model, test the model, and possibly make changes tothe model as she goes throughout the process. Which scientific concept is Jane studying? A. scientific method B. biomimetics C. evolution H
Jane's exploration of the ecosystem to create a model is a scientific concept that has to do with biomimetics, option B.
What is Biomimetics?Biomimetics is a field of study that aims to imitate nature's design and use its strategies to solve human problems in various fields, such as engineering, architecture, and medicine.
It involves taking inspiration from nature and creating new technologies, processes, and products that mimic the structures, functions, and systems found in nature. The goal of biomimetics is to create sustainable, efficient, and effective solutions that are modeled after the way nature operates.
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Classify each statement or picture as applying to gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, or both.
Turn pink following Gram staining.Have an external membrane as part of their cell wall structure. Have a thin peptidoglycan layer.Remove crystal violet with ease with an alcohol rinse.
The crystal violet stain utilized in the Gram staining method of bacterial differentiation is not retained by gram-negative bacteria.
They can be identified by the structure of their cell envelopes, which are made up of a bacterial outer membrane, an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane, and a thin peptidoglycan cell wall. There are gram-negative bacteria in every place in Universe that supports life.
They present a serious medical problem because many antibiotics, such as penicillin, detergents that would ordinarily destroy the inner cell membrane, as well as lysozyme, an antibacterial enzyme generated by animals and a component of the innate immune system, cannot penetrate their outer membrane.
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Gram-positive bacteria is correct option, have a thick covering of peptidoglycan. - Crystal violet cannot be removed with an alcohol rinse. - become purple during Gram staining.
Gram staining can thus be used to distinguish between the two types of bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have impermeable cell walls, which makes them more resistant to antibodies. Based on their capacity to retain the gramme stain, bacteria are divided into gram-positive and gram-negative groups.
Gram staining, turn pink. have an exterior membrane that is a component of the cell wall. possess a thin covering of peptidoglycan. With an alcohol washing, crystal violet can be easily removed. Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram staining method of bacterial differentiation. Their cell envelopes, which are made up of a thin peptidoglycan cell wall, an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane, and an outside bacterial membrane, can be recognised by their structure. Every environment that can support life has gram-negative bacteria.
Because many antibiotics, like penicillin, and detergents that would typically disrupt the inner cell membrane, including lysozyme, an antibacterial enzyme produced by animals and a component of
The given question is incomplete, the complete is:
Classify each statement or picture as applying to gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, or both.
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Question 2 (1 point)
Which best describes evolutionary success?
A successful organism possesses adaptive traits and produces more offspring than survive.
B successful organism possesses traits that are different from traits in the rest of the population and that allow the organism to
compete more successfully.
C successful organism possesses adaptive traits and is able to pass those traits on to numerous offspring which then reproduce.
D successful organism produces more offspring than others in the population.
Evolutionary success: Successful organisms possess adaptive traits and can pass these traits on to a large number of offspring to reproduce.
What is Evolutionary success?Evolutionary success is best described as organisms with adaptive traits that allow them to compete better than other organisms in the same population and produce more offspring.Evolutionary success means that an organism can pass those traits on to a large number of offspring, and then replicate those traits and pass them on to its own offspring.Evolutionary success process of conferring beneficial properties and allowing organisms to grow normally increases their chances of survival in a particular environment.Through this reproductive success, organisms increase their chances of passing on their genetic material to future generations, increasing their evolutionary success.Evolutionary success is associated with genetic variation and historical demographics, as indicated by high frequency and wide geographic range. Here, we investigate how Quaternary climate change affected the demographics and distribution of the neotropical wetland palm Mauritia flexuous.To learn more about Evolutionary success from the given link:
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Why are gametes the only haploid cells in your body?
a. Because it takes four gametes to make a zygote
b. Because half of an offspring's DNA will come from each parent
c.Because they are the only cells not doing a job
d.They are not haploid, they are diploid
Answer:
Correct option is b
b. Because half of an offspring's DNA will come from each parent
Explanation:
describe and give examples of continuous reinforcement and partial reinforcement schedules (fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval and variable interval).
Continuous reinforcement is when a behavior is reinforced every time it is exhibited, while partial reinforcement schedules is a schedule where a behavior is reinforced only some of the time.
Continuous reinforcement refers to a schedule of reinforcement in which a behavior is reinforced every time it is exhibited. For example, if a pigeon is trained to peck a button and receives food every time it pecks the button, that would be an example of continuous reinforcement.
Partial reinforcement schedules refer to a schedule of reinforcement in which a behavior is reinforced only some of the time. There are four types of partial reinforcement schedules: fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, and variable interval.
Fixed ratio schedule: A behavior is reinforced only after a specific number of responses. For example, if a factory worker is paid every 10 widgets they produce, that would be an example of a fixed ratio schedule.Variable ratio schedule: A behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses. For example, playing a slot machine is an example of variable ratio schedule, because the number of times the lever must be pulled before winning the jackpot is unpredictable.Fixed interval schedule: A behavior is reinforced only after a specific amount of time has passed. For example, a teacher only giving a quiz every two weeks is an example of a fixed interval schedule.Variable interval schedule: A behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable amount of time has passed. For example, a pop quiz is an example of a variable interval schedule, because the teacher does not announce when the quiz will be given.To learn more about continuous reinforcement visit: https://brainly.com/question/25961563
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Which of the following standard-setting bodies have worked to converge their auditing standards with one another?
The ASB and IAASB have been working to converge their auditing standards with one another.
The Auditing Standards Board (ASB) is the senior committee of the AICPA that Council has designated to issue auditing, attestation, and quality control standards as well as practice guidance for carrying out and disclosing on audit and attestation engagements for non-issuers (i.e., entities not covered by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) jurisdiction).
The senior committee of the AICPA for compilations or reviews, the Accounting and Review Services Committee (ARSC), is in charge of issuing pronouncements in relation to nonpublic entities' unaudited financial statements or other unaudited financial information. With the ultimate goal of serving the public interest, its mission is to develop and disseminate comprehensive performance and reporting standards and practice guidance to enable accountants of non issuers to offer high-quality, objective compilation and review services.
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An individual who greatly respects those in positions of power is generally supportive of ______ .
A person who values authority figures highly is typically an authoritarian supporter.
What does authoritarian leadership entail? A person who values authority figures highly is typically an authoritarian supporter.An individual who practices authoritarian leadership, often referred to as autocratic leadership, has complete control over all decisions and the people under his/her supervision.When a leader sets all rules and regulations, determines the objectives to be met, and controls all actions without allowing subordinates to have any real say in the matter, that leader is exhibiting an authoritarian leadership style.The team has little autonomy under such a boss because they have complete influence over them.Authoritarian leadership refers to a style of management in which the boss instructs the team members what to do and how to do it without seeking their input or suggestions.To learn more about authoritarian refer
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HELPP Im not sure about these and I can’t get it wrong:)
Note that the descriptions related to the Ecosystem are matched to the options as follows:
Prairie Dogs: Digs holes that aerate the soil and provide habitat to others with their burrows.Elephant Seals: Their restored habitat regulates freshwater downstream of them.Bats: Regulate the spread of rabies (via feral dogs) into human populations.Leopards: Keep baboons from tearing up farm fields.Reindeer: Food, clothing and meat for people of the tundra.Vultures: Regulate the spread of lyme disease into human populations.Pandas: Tramples the ground to keep it aerated and fertilized, keeping the grasslands healthy.Hawks: Keep insect pests off of our crops.What is an Ecosystem?An ecosystem is made up of all the species and the physical environment in which they live. These biotic and abiotic elements are connected via nutrient cycles and energy fluxes. Photosynthesis delivers energy into the system, which is then absorbed into plant tissue.
The ability of natural processes and components to supply commodities and services that directly or indirectly meet human needs is referred to as ecosystem function.
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what two traits provide the basis of our selection strategy for both enterobacter aerogenes and for escherichia coli? [1 point]
The large Gram-negative family Enterobacteriaceae includes a variety of pathogens, such as Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Salmonella, Escherichia coli, Shigella, Proteus, Serratia, and other species.
In hospital wards throughout the past three decades, Enterobacter aerogenes and E. cloacae have been identified as significant opportunistic and multiresistant bacterial infections for humans. Several epidemics of hospital-acquired diseases in Europe, particularly in France, have led to extensive descriptions of these Gram-negative bacteria.
The spread of Enterobacter species is correlated with the development of detoxifying enzymes involved in antibiotic degradation/inactivation and redundant regulatory cascades that effectively limit membrane permeability, assuring bacterial protection.
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which of the following statements describes a correct fact about cytoskeletons (microtubules, f-actin and intermediate filaments)?
The correct statements about cytoskeletal filaments are:
The three major cytoskeletal filaments' building blocks can bind to and hydrolyze nucleotides ( A )The building blocks of F-actin and microtubules are globular proteins, whereas those of intermediate filaments are filamentous proteins. ( D )The cytoskeleton is a structure found in cells that aids in cell structure and organization. Some of the cytoskeleton's functions include
Aids in the transport of materials into and out of a cell.Aids in the process of cell divisionCytoskeletal filaments, which are essentially protein filaments found in cell cytoplasm, make up the cytoskeleton. Filamentous proteins make up the intermediate filaments.
As a result, we can conclude that each of the three major cytoskeletal filaments' building blocks can bind to and hydrolyze nucleotides, and that the building blocks of F-actin and microtubules are globular proteins, whereas those of intermediate filaments are filamentous proteins.
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Which of the
following is easiest
to regulate?
A. acid deposition
B. runoff from agricultural
lands
C. sediment from
construction sites
D. effluent from factories
The easiest to regulate will be acid deposition.
Option A is correct.
What is pollutants?A pollutant or also called a novel entity is described as a substance or energy introduced into the environment that has undesired effects, or adversely affects the usefulness of a resource.
The main pollutants present in most drinking water sources are organic substances, ammonia nitrogen, phenols, pesticides and pathogenic micro-organisms.
Therefore a great way to reduce acid deposition is to produce energy without using fossil fuels.
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Answer:
D. effluent from factories
Explanation:
I just did it on Acellus and it was right. Answer A is INCORRECT!
. Science students in Alma’s class are observing prepared slides of the cells of maple tree leaves and mammal skin cells. Their teacher records their observations on the board as they study the cells under the microscope’s highest magnification. Which would be included in the teacher’s list?
a. The leaf cells have green organelles called chloroplasts; the animal cells do not.
b. Both the animal and plant cells have an oval shape and are about the same size.
c. Both types of cells have a membrane that is also surrounded by a cell wall.
d. The skin cells have a nucleus, but the cells of the leaves have no nucleus
Answer: A. The leaf cells have green organelles called chloroplasts; the animal cells do not.
Describe the function of muscle cells in the wall of the stomach.
The function of muscularis in the stomach wall is to squeeze the walls together to help move partly digested food into the small bowel.
Muscle fibers comprise a single muscle cell. They prop to control the physical forces within the body. When grouped with each other, they can reduce the movement of your limbs and tissues.
Therefore, the stomach muscles contract occasionally, churning food to improve digestion. Among all the GI organs, the stomach is the only one with a triple-layered tunica muscularis which is a muscle layer.
This triple layer of muscle allows the stomach to twist, turn and churn in different directions to mechanically and chemically digest your food. This muscle is also a smooth muscle, which is under involuntary control.
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PLEASE HELP ME I NEED HELP
a) The wound is situated in the left posterior inferior lumbar region.
b) The injury is on the right anterior, more specifically in the medial crural region.
What part of the body is the lumbar region?
In tetrapod anatomy, the lumbar region refers to the abdominal region of the torso, which is situated between the diaphragm and the sacral. Other names for the lumbar region include the lower spine or the area of the back around it.
The term "lumbar vertebrae" refers to the remaining vertebrae that are located between the top of the sacrum and the last thoracic bone. In contrast to the sacral vertebrae, which are caged within the pelvic bones, the coccyx is the terminal vertebrae or "rudimentary tail." In total, there are five vertebrae in the lower back.
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his group of questions consists of five lettered headings followed by a list of phrases or sentences. for each phrase or sentence, select the one heading to which it is most closely related. each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all. this group of questions refers to the following groups of biological compounds.
The correct heading to which the given phrase is closely related is Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions of photosynthesis).
According to the definition of photosynthesis, it is the process through which certain microorganisms and green plants produce food when exposed to sunlight. When the organic molecule is in the presence of carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight, glucose is produced. The process by which oxygen is produced as a byproduct is called photosynthesis. An example of an oxidation-reduction reaction is photosynthesis. Water passes through oxidation whereas carbon dioxide goes through reduction.
The Kreb's cycle, often known as the citric acid cycle, is a critical phase of cellular respiration. The breakdown of acetyl coenzyme A (decarboxylated pyruvate) takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.
The fixation of carbon dioxide into sugar molecules occurs during the Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent processes of photosynthesis. ATP and NADH are created as a result of the process, which occurs in the thylakoid membrane. In the absence of sunshine, the procedure takes place.
The photosynthesis process involves the transformation of light energy into chemical energy. Within thylakoids, the activity takes place in the presence of oxygen.
Ions must flow across the membrane during chemiosmosis. An electrochemical gradient is created as a result. The synthesis of ATP is driven by this electrochemical gradient.
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes engage in glycolysis, which involves the breakdown of glucose to produce energy. It is a crucial phase of the respiration process. Pyruvate, the byproduct of glycolysis, is added to a number of cycles to provide energy.
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How do you transfer RNA to amino acids?
When a transfer RNA recognizes and binds to its corresponding codon in the ribosome then tRNA transfers the appropriate amino acid to the end of the growing amino acid chain and continue to decode the mRNA molecule until the whole sequence is translated into a protein.
Process of RNA is translated into an amino acid sequence via the genetic code this process converts each three RNA that is called a codon, into one of twenty amino acids.
It is called Aminoacylation process which means that it adding an aminoacyl group to a compound when tRNA transfers amino acids. It is based on adaptor molecules that translate genetic information into protein sequence by delivering amino acids to the protein synthesis during translation.
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1.Which type of wave needs a medium to travel?(1 point)
sound waves, because they travel by oscillating molecules
light waves, because they travel by oscillating molecules
sound waves, because they travel by oscillating electromagnetic fields
light waves, because they travel by oscillating electromagnetic fields
Answer:
lighf waves becuse they travel by oscillating molecules
when banting and best performed their experiments on dogs, they need approval from a committee before they could begin animal work. group of answer choices
The statement "when Banting and Best performed their experiments on dogs, they need approval from a committee before they could begin animal work" is false, because when Banting and Best performed their experiments on dogs, they need approval from John James Rickard Macleod before they could begin animal work.
In the eаrly 1920s, Frederick Bаnting аnd Chаrles Best discovered insulin under the directorship of John Mаcleod аt the University of Toronto. With the help of Jаmes Collip insulin wаs purified, mаking it аvаilаble for the successful treаtment of diаbetes. Bаnting аnd Mаcleod eаrned а Nobel Prize for their work in 1923.
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Classify the descriptions as being representative of either the somatic nervous system or the autonomic nervous system. Somatic Nervous System Autonomic Nervous System Two lower motor neurons Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers Voluntary control Innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle Involuntary control One lower motor Reset
Somatic Nervous System -Voluntary Control -One lower motor neuron -Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers
Autonomic Nervous System - involuntary control
-two lower motor neurons -innervates heart muscle and smooth muscle
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are both elements of the peripheral nervous system, which allows the brain and spinal cord to receive and send information to different parts of the body.
The somatic nervous system has both sensory and motor pathways, whereas the autonomic nervous system exclusively has motor pathways. The autonomic nervous system regulates internal organs and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system regulates muscles and movement.
The autonomic nervous system is a component of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic activities such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal.
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Using 18 O as the basis of your discussion, explain how we know that the oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from water.
The experiments of photosynthesis showed that the O2 from plants was labeled with 18O only if water was the source of the tracer. If the 18O was introduced to the plant in the form of CO2, the label did not turn up in the released O2.
Scientists confirmed van Niel's hypothesis that oxygen released from photosynthesis comes from water with the use of 18O, a heavy isotope, as a tracer to follow the fate of oxygen atoms during photosynthesis.
The stages of photosynthesis that transform solar energy into chemical energy are known as light reactions. O2 is released as a consequence of the splitting of water, which also serves as a source of protons and electrons. Chlorophyll absorbs light, which triggers the transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions from water to NADP+, an electron acceptor. where they are momentarily kept. The light processes add two electrons and a hydrogen ion to convert NADP+ to NADPH using sun energy. The light reactions also produce ATP by phosphorylating ADP by adding a phosphate group under the control of chemiosmosis. Thus, NADPH and ATP are the first two molecules that light energy is transformed into.
Carbon fixation is the mechanism by which CO2 from the air is incorporated into organic molecules already present in the chloroplast to start the Calvin cycle. By adding electrons, the cycle then converts the fixed carbon to carbohydrates.
NADPH, which obtained its electron payload from light processes, provides the reducing power. converting CO2 .The cycle needs ATP, which is produced by the light reactions, as well as chemical energy in the form of carbohydrate.
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During what stage do the chromosomes pull a part
Answer:
Anaphase
Explanation:
The sister chromatids separate from each other and are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell. Each is now its own chromosome. The chromosomes of each pair are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell.
Answer:
Anaphase
Explanation:
After metaphase is complete, the cell enters anaphase. During anaphase, the microtubules attached to the kinetochores contract, which pulls the sister chromatids apart and toward opposite poles of the cell . At this point, each chromatid is considered a separate chromosome.
a heavy frog and a light frog jump straight up into the air. they push off in such away that they both have the same kinetic energy just as they leave the ground. air resistance is negligible. which of the following statements about these frogs are correct?
if both the frogs have the same kinetic energy just as they leave the ground. air resistance is negligible then, The lighter frog goes higher than the heavier frog and The lighter frog is moving faster than the heavier frog.
as we can see that the lighter frog goes higher and the heavier frog goes down and is slower is because,
according to the question, both the frogs have same kinetic energy and therefore we can apply the equation,
K L = KH
1/2mv² = 1/2mv²
if the acting force is gravity, then KE at the height of maximum can be written as,
Vf²-V0² = -2g X HMAX
here H = Hmax.
therefore,
H=V0²/2g
as both have the same kinetic energy we can conclude lighter will be faster and higher than the heavier frog.
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what is the sequence of the above pictured dna molecule in the 3 bp region enclosed in the box? give only the sequence of the strand on the left reading from bottom to top. use upper case letters (a for adenine, g for guanine, c for cytosine, t for thymine). do not leave any spaces.
The 3′-end (three prime finish) of a strand is so named because it ends at the hydroxyl gathering of the third carbon in the sugar ring and is known as the last part.
Each gathering of three bases in mRNA comprises a codon, and every codon determines a specific amino corrosive (subsequently, it is a trio code). The mRNA succession is in this manner utilized as a layout to collect — all together — the chain of amino acids that structure a protein.
DNA is made out of two strands of nucleotides kept intact by hydrogen holding. The strands each run from 5' to 3' and run in antiparallel, or inverse, bearings from each other.
Each finish of a DNA particle has a number. One end is alluded to as 5' (five prime) and the opposite end is alluded to as 3' (three prime). The 5' and 3' assignments allude to the number of carbon particles in a deoxyribose sugar particle to which a phosphate bunch bonds.
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A DNA particle has a number on each end. Five prime is mentioned at one end, while three prime is mentioned at the other (three prime).
The deoxyribose sugar particle's number of carbon atoms that a phosphate bunch attaches to is indicated by the 5' and 3' assignments.
Because it stops at the hydroxyl gathering of the third carbon in the sugar ring and is referred to as the last portion, the 3′-end (three prime finish) of a strand is so named.
In mRNA, each grouping of three nucleotides is called a codon, and each codon determines a certain amino acid (subsequently, it is a trio code). In this way, the sequence of mRNA is used as a pattern to gather all of the amino acid chains that make up a protein.
Two strands of nucleotides make up DNA, and hydrogen holds the nucleotides together. Each of the strands extends from 5' to 3' and moves in an inverse or antiparallel direction from the other.
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show that the directional derivative exists iff directional derivative of partial derivative exists
The directional derivative only exists if and only if the partial derivatives exist. This is because the directional derivative is a linear combination of the partial derivatives.
For a function of several variables, the existence of the directional derivative in a given direction is equivalent to the existence of the partial derivative with respect to each variable in that direction. This is because the directional derivative can be shown as a linear combination of the partial derivatives, with the coefficients depending on the direction.
The directional derivative of a function at a given point in a given direction is a measure of how much the function changes in that direction. The partial derivative of a function at a given point with respect to a given variable is a measure of how much the function changes with respect to that variable.
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The botulinum toxin achieves its deadly effects by blocking the release of dopamine at the neuromuscular junction. True or False
False, The botulinum toxin doesn't achieves its deadly effects by blocking the release of dopamine at the neuromuscular junction.
Acetylcholine (ACh), a neurotransmitter that is found in both the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the central nervous system (CNS), is blocked from being released and having its effects by the action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction (motor plaque) (SNP). Botulinum toxin disrupts the nervous impulse by preventing the release of acetylcholine, which results in a distinctive flaccid paralysis of the muscles. This effect is utilized to smooth out wrinkles on the chin and facial skin, as well as to treat a number of human disorders that are defined by hyperfunction of particular neuron terminals. Although they are uncommon, this treatment's side effects are typically caused by the drug's active ingredient or by misconduct in the medical field.
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one difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person
One difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person may demonstrate a lower than normal temperature.
Urinary infections are an all-too-normal, excruciating disturbance or more regrettable for more youthful grown-ups, especially ladies. Sadly, you don't be guaranteed to grow out of UTIs in more seasoned age. For example, over 16% of ladies more established than 65 revealed having included a UTI inside the previous year, expanding to almost 30% in ladies north of 85, as per figures detailed in the Walk 2014 issue of Irresistible Illness Facilities of North America. UTIs additionally expansion in more seasoned men.
As you age, UTIs might influence you in an unexpected way. For certain seniors, dementia can additionally confuse UTI anticipation and discovery. Your urinary plot incorporates your urethra, bladder, ureters and kidneys. Pee, which is made in the kidneys, streams down through the ureter cylinders to be put away in the bladder. At the point when you pee, pee goes through the urethra, another cylinder, and out of the body. Cystitis is disease of the bladder, and urethritis is contamination of the urethra. A urinary plot contamination can include any piece of this framework. Albeit most UTIs influence the lower urinary parcel, high level UTIs can include the kidneys, which is more serious.
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(Complete question) is:
one difference in the older and a younger adult who contract urinary infections is that the older person _________.
It is helpful to form hypotheses because they help focus your investigation on a single idea to be tested. Suppose that a farmer wants to determine what the best growing conditions are for almond trees on his farm. Which of the following are appropriate hypotheses that the farmer could test? Select all that apply. Which of the following are appropriate hypotheses that the farmer could test? Select all that apply. Almond trees grow taller when they are planted in direct sunlight. Almond trees live longer if fertilizer is mixed into the soil once every three months. Almond trees produce larger almonds if they are watered daily and fertilizer is used. Almond trees produce more almonds if they are watered once a day. Request Answer Part D The scientific method is a process that is used by everyone in their daily lives, not just by scientists in a research lab. Which of the following scenarios describe people using steps of the scientific method? Select all that apply. Which of the following scenarios describe people using steps of the scientific method? Select all that apply. In order to determine what type of fertilizer works best for growing flowers on his balcony, Joe plants flowers in three pots with three different types of fertilizes and measures their growth over time. While trying to figure out why her smartphone keeps turning off after she dropped it, Jocelyn predicts that the battery is loose inside the case. Miguel's car doesn't start in the morning, so he methodically checks one possible component at a time to try to figure out why his car will not start. Sarah observes that a specific type of ant keeps showing up in her kitchen, which leads her to wonder what the ant is attracted to.
Option A, B, and C: Almond trees grow taller, produce larger almonds and produce more almonds when watered daily, is the appropriate hypothesis that the farmer could test for almond trees.
The farmer here is making a scientific investigation to test the almond trees and would find that almond trees are influenced by factors like water, sunlight, and air as well. When watered daily, they would a good and bigger amount of the fruit. Thus, water and sunlight here are the environmental factors that help the farmer to test the hypothesis. Option A, B and C provide the right information.
A hypothesis is a suggested explanation for a phenomenon (plural: hypotheses). According to the scientific process, a theory may only be regarded as scientific if it can be tested. Scientific hypotheses are frequently based on prior data that cannot be fully explained by accepted explanations.
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Santiago Elena and Richard Lenski performed long-term artificial selection experiments with bacteria. Over time, the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source. Which of the following is a conclusion of these experiments?A. All of the answer options are correct.B. Natural selection can occur in the laboratory.C. Bacteria can evolve an improved ability to use succinate.D. Evolution can occur in the laboratory.E. Bacteria can evolve over time
As over time, the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source all of the answer options are correct is a conclusion of these experiments. Option A.
Santiago Elena and Richard Lenski conducted long-term artificial selection experiments with bacteria, wherein the bacteria evolved an ability to use succinate as a food source.
These experiments demonstrate that natural selection can occur in the laboratory and that bacteria can evolve an improved ability to use succinate and over time.
Through natural selection, bacteria have evolved and begun to use succinate as a food source. This means that the bacteria can evolve over time in a laboratory.
Therefore, option A is correct, as all of the answer options are reflective of the results of the experiments.
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osteopenia is thinner than average bone density. this term is used to describe the condition of someone who does not yet have osteoporosis, but is at risk for developing it.
True, Osteopenia is a condition in which a person is at risk of developing osteoporosis but does not yet have it. Bones become brittle and prone to breaking due to the condition.
Osteoporosis, which is characterised by decreased bone mass and poor bone quality, can develop as a result of unregulated bone loss. People with osteoporosis have bones that are easily broken by even a small impact. A minor fall, such as tripping over a loose rug in the living room, might cause a bone to break in someone with osteoporosis.
Bone strength is evaluated using bone density assays. These tests are used by medical professionals to detect osteoporosis and diagnose it. The exams are crucial because they might warn you of issues with your bones before you have fractures.
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T/F: Osteopenia is thinner than average bone density. this term is used to describe the condition of someone who does not yet have osteoporosis, but is at risk for developing it.
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