Fill in the blank . If the graph of an exponential function is increasing from left to right it is called exponential​

Answer:

point m is -5;7 but point l is 9;12

Step-by-step explanation:

m there is negative but l is positive

Answer:

Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don't contain the variable.

y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

if you are to put this on a graph the would be Linear

Answer:

2880

1950

3960

2240

920

5220

4320

3760

6650

1080

32980 is the sum of all combined

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Miss Hawaii

Answer:

1. 2880

2. 1950

3. 3960

4. 2240

5. 920

6. 5220

7. 5760

8. 3760

9. 6650

10. 1080

Answer:

the first one is equivalent and the second one is not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

In the first one do the distributive property first by distributing the the -2.

[tex]3x - 4.6x - 5 = 1.6x - 5[/tex]

collect like terms on the left side

[tex] - 1.6x - 5 = - 1.6x - 5[/tex]

they are equivalent.

The second equation do the distributive property first by multiplying by -3.

[tex]5 + 4.8x + 6.3 = 4.8x - 1.3[/tex]

collect like terms on the left.

[tex]4.8x + 11.3 = 4.8x - 1.3[/tex]

not equivalent

Answer:

5 1/2 x 1/3 = 11x/6

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Answer:

5+3*(5-2*2)

5+3*(5-4)

5+3*1

5+3

=8

Step-by-step explanation: i think

Answer:

22.41

Step-by-step explanation:

Set up a proportion where x is the time to fly 174798 miles

Cross multiply and solve for x:

118404x = 2653433.64

x = 22.41

So, it would take 22.41 hours to fly 174798 miles

Answer:

-3 < z < 3

Step-by-step explanation:

×4

10 < 2z + 16 < 22. -16

-6 < 2z < 6. ÷2

-3 < z < 3

Answer:

SAS Postulate

Two sides and the included angle of one triangle are congruent to two sides and the included angle in a second triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.

Answer:

C. 4.00 per person

Step-by-step explanation:

I say its 4.00 per person because in each row you mutiply the players and 4.00 you get the other side of the row. Ex 11 players multiplied by 4 dollars per person equals 44.00 dollars in total which the graph shows.

Answer:

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if i'm wrong mate

Answer:

If we translated the triangle 4 units right and 3 units down, then our new points would be J' (3,0)  K' (3,-2)  L' (0,-2).  Hope this helped ..

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is reciprocal

Answer:

Absolute value

Step-by-step explanation:

Parent function: y = |x|

44% discount

(2200 is 44% of 5000)

Answer:

For question 3 its definitely 5^15 and I searched 4 so I thinks its 71 or 161? sorry I don't know angles but 3 is correct

Answer:

[tex] {5}^{4 + 8 + 3} = {5}^{15} \\ \\ 90 - 19 = 71[/tex]

Answer:

four hundred thirty-five thousand : 435,000

two hundred two : 202

Answer:

Answer is invalid. You cannot solve it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=4.8 X=34.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-1= -1/1

1 to 1 = 1/1

2:3 = 2/3

3 to 2 = 3/2

-2 = -2/1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/32

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Total amount:

Total amount:

As we see the second method is a better choice

Answer:

SHERRIE

- Princible P= 200

- Interest rate R= 4% or 0.04

-  Number of compounds N= 12

- Time T= 2

HARRISON 

- Princible P= 200

- Interest rate R= 2% or 0.02

- Number of compounds N= 4

-  Time T= 2

Formula: A= P(1+r/n)^nt

Now plug in values for each person: 

200(1+0.02/4)^4*2= 208.14

200(1+0.04/12)^12*2= 216.63

And as you can see, the second method (Sherrie's) is the best choice.

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the expected value, it is found that a price of $6 should be charged to make it a fair game.

--------------------------

In a standard deck, there are 52 cards.

The cost of x.

There are 4 Aces in a standard deck, thus [tex]\frac{4}{52}[/tex] probability of earning 26 - x.

There is 1 King of Hearts in a standard deck, thus [tex]\frac{1}{52}[/tex] probability of earning 204 - x.

There are 4 Jacks and 4 Queens in a standard deck, thus [tex]\frac{8}{52}[/tex] probability of winning 13 - x.

The other 39 cards you lose, thus [tex]\frac{39}{52}[/tex] probability of losing x.

Considering we want the expected value to be 0.

[tex]\frac{4}{52}(26 - x) + \frac{1}{52}(204 - x) + \frac{8}{52}(13 - x) - \frac{39}{52}x = 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4(26 - x) + 204 - x + 8(13 - x) - 39x}{52} = 0[/tex]

[tex]104 - 4x + 204 - x + 104 - 8x - 39x = 0[/tex]

[tex]52x = 312[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{312}{52}[/tex]

[tex]x = 6[/tex]

$6 should be charged.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24905256

please mark this answer as brainlist

The value of the numerical expression {[(20 – 32) ÷ (–6)]² – 11} ÷ (–7) will be 1.

When the relevant factors and natural laws of a mathematical model are given values, the outcome of the calculation it describes is the expression's outcome.

The expression is given below.

⇒ {[(20 – 32) ÷ (–6)]² – 11} ÷ (–7)

Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction are all part of the PEMDAS formula. To answer the problem properly and accurately, this rule must be followed.

⇒ {[(20 – 32) ÷ (–6)]² – 11} ÷ (–7)

⇒ {[(–12) ÷ (–6)]² – 11} ÷ (–7)

⇒ {[2]² – 11} ÷ (–7)

⇒ {4 – 11} ÷ (–7)

⇒ (– 7) ÷ (–7)

⇒ 1

The value of the numerical expression {[(20 – 32) ÷ (–6)]² – 11} ÷ (–7) will be 1.

More about the value of the expression link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/23671908

#SPJ5

Answer:

21/32 gal

Step-by-step explanation:

1 gallon equals 16 cups, so we first need to convert the rate from cups to gallons

1.5cup/1 x 1/16 gal

can be simplified to 3/32 gal

so we now multiply this rate by 7 for a week

so in total it leaks

3/32 x 7/1 = 21/32

Answer:

10 is answer if your question.

Step-by-step explanation:

mark me as a brainlist plz.

How will I answer that, the image isn't showing luv