Denali is the highest mountain
in the United States. What is its height in meters?
Round to the nearest whole number.

Answer:

  B.  across the y-axis

Step-by-step explanation:

The line of reflection is the perpendicular bisector of the segment between the orginal point and its image. If you plot the two points, you see that the y-axis is that bisector.

The point was reflected across the y-axis.

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Additional comments

Changing the sign of the x-coordinate means a point that was some distance on one side of the y-axis is now that same distance on the other side. That is, the y-axis is the line of reflection when the sign of x changes.

Similarly, the x-axis is the line of reflection when the sign of y changes.

  (x, y) ⇒ (-x, y) . . . . reflection across the y-axis

  (x, y) ⇒ (x, -y) . . . . reflection across the x-axis

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Changing the signs of both coordinates (in either order) is effectively a reflection across the origin. There are other names for this reflection, too.

  (x, y) ⇒ (-x, -y) . . . . reflection across both axes, across the orign, rotation 180°

Delete the comma if needed

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Explanation:

The exponent of 5 means we move the decimal 5 spots to the right.

This has us go from 7.23 to 723,000

If the exponent was negative, then we'd move that amount to the left.

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

Distance (d) = √(11 - -13)2 + (2 - 9)2

= √(24)2 + (-7)2

= √625

= 25

Answer: 25 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

answer: FALSE

Step-by-step explanation:

V=Bh

The formula for the volume of a prism is V=Bh , where B is the base area and h is the height. The base of the prism is a rectangle. The length of the rectangle is 9 cm and the width is 7 cm. The area A of a rectangle with length l and width w is A=lw .

Answer:

1) 16
2) 12
4) 4
5) 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the value for x in the equation above and solve for y for all 5.

Answer:

p=75(alternative) , t=105(sum of all sides) ,

q=105(sum of all sides) , s=105(straight angle)

r=75(sum of all sides)

Answer: $7 change remains

Step-by-step explanation: When doing rounding in word problems, in most situations you will have to round up regardless of numbers. Rounding to the nickel then means that the cents on the cash amounts must be .00 or .05 Following this pattern:

0.87 is rounded to 0.90

2.66 is rounded to 2.70

3.90 is rounded to 3.90

1.63 is rounded to 1.65

2.53 is rounded to 2.55

1.30 is rounded to 1.30

Then just add together the rounded amounts, which is $13

Simply subtract with the formula, 20-13=7

Answer:

c,e, d

Step-by-step explanation:

c,e,d is the correct to me

Answer:

we can get 3/2 as the answer

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A) 18.84 divided by 6 is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

pi is essentially any circles' circumference over its diameter. In this case, the rug's circumference is 18.84 and it's diameter is 6, therefore to find pi, you would do 18.84 divided by 6, which is answer A.

Hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]3 \times x[/tex]

[tex]3x[/tex]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that:

3.1 There is a 0.5033 = 50.33% probability that he makes at most one sale.

3.2 There is a 0.8322 = 83.22% probability that he makes at least one sale.

3.3. There is a 0.4404 = 44.04% probability that he makes two or three sales.

3.4. There is a 0.0011 = 0.11% probability that he makes six sales.

The formula is:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

Item 1:

The probability that he makes at most one sale is:

[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{8,0}.(0.2)^{0}.(0.8)^{8} = 0.1678[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{7} = 0.3355[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.1678 + 0.3355 = 0.5033[/tex]

There is a 0.5033 = 50.33% probability that he makes at most one sale.

Item 2:

The probability that he makes at least one sale is:

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.1678 = 0.8322.

There is a 0.8322 = 83.22% probability that he makes at least one sale.

Item 3:

The probability that he makes two or three sales is given by:

[tex]P(2 \leq X \leq 3) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{8,2}.(0.2)^{2}.(0.8)^{6} = 0.2936[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{8,1}.(0.2)^{3}.(0.8)^{5} = 0.1468[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(2 \leq X \leq 3) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.2936 + 0.1468 = 0.4404[/tex]

There is a 0.4404 = 44.04% probability that he makes two or three sales.

Item 4:

The probability that he makes six sales is P(X = 6), hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{8,6}.(0.2)^{6}.(0.8)^{2} = 0.0011[/tex]

There is a 0.0011 = 0.11% probability that he makes six sales.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

We need to use the sine of 17 degrees to find x. Our proportion is sin(17 degrees)=x/9.3. Multiply both sides by 9.3 and we get 9.3sin(17)=x. Using a calculator, we get about 2.7.

Answer:

63 in 64 chance

Step-by-step explanation:

If you for one coin it would be a 50% chance so you multiply that [tex]\frac{1}{2}^{6}[/tex] which would be the probability of no heads 1/64 and at least 1 head you would [tex]1-\frac{1}{64}[/tex] which is [tex]\frac{63}{64}[/tex]. Ask me if you have any further questions

Step-by-step explanation:

30: 225 = 25: X

30/225= 25/X

30×X = 225×25

30X = 5625

X = 187.5

Answer:

(w + 24)⁴

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum is to the power of four, so it would be the entire expression.

Hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

I never learned this (for good reasons, I say). for me this is the strangest thing in math. math is precise. we are not guessing around when we can actually calculate things.

this is definitely ok, when just trying to decide, if one fraction is larger than the other, but to use that for an actual operation among fractions, is the biggest nonsense I have ever seen in math lessons (and not simpler than doing the precise calculation). again, math is a precise thing. the only valid level of imprecise answers is rounding, but only for the end result, not for intermediate results, because the rounding errors are rarely compensating for each other, they mostly pile up making the end result even less precise.

enough with the venting ...

benchmark fractions are the simple fractions (and their multiples)

1 (=1/1), 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, 1/5, 1/6

and then in steps of 2 :

1/8, 1/10, 1/12, ...

we try to find the closest simple fractions to our actual fractions and use them to estimate the actual result.

the simplest (but also normally the least precise) benchmark approach is using 1/2 as benchmark unit and 0, 1/2, 1 as benchmarks.

so, is 10/12 closest to 0, to 1/2 or to 1 ?

we know that 0 in 12ths would be 0/12, 1/2 would be 6/12, and 1 would be 12/12.

so, out of these 3 values 10/12 is closest to 12/12 (=1), so that is what you are choosing as representation.

is 3/8 closest to 0, 1/2 or to 1 ?

we would have 0/8, 4/8, 8/8.

and 3/8 is closest to 4/8 (= 1/2), and that is what we are choosing here as representation.

and the estimated result of 10/12 - 3/8 = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2 or 4/8 or 6/12.

let's pick 1/4 as benchmark unit.

so, are the numbers closest to

0, 1/4, 2/4, 3/4 or 1 (4/4) ?

for 10/12 we get then

0/12, 3/12, 6/12, 9/12, 12/12

and 10/12 is closest to 9/12 (3/4), which we pick as representation.

for 3/8 we get

0/8, 2/8, 4/8, 6/8, 8/8

if equidistant, we have to round up, so, we get 4/8 (2/4), which we pick as representation.

and the estimated calculation is

10/12 - 3/8 = 3/4 - 2/4 = 1/4

which is really horrible ...

2 and 4 are factors of 12 and 8. all smaller benchmark fractions (<1/4; so, e.g. 1/5, 1/6, 1/8. ...) are not meeting that criteria, making the benchmark finding much harder. so, I would not try that.

the real result is

the LCM of 12 and 8 is 24 (2×12 and 3×8).

so, we have

20/24 - 9/24 = 11/24 (almost 1/2).

so, actually, the benchmark unit of 1/2 is giving the best result here.

but to just do the exercise of benchmark units that are not factors of both denominators, let's pick 1/6

so, are the numbers closest to

0, 1/6, 2/6, 3/6, 4/6, 5/6 or 1 (6/6) ?

for 10/12 we get (all nicely)

0/12, 2/12, 4/12, 6/12, 8/12, 10/12, 12/12

so, 10/12 is closest to 10/12 (of course) = 5/6, which we pick as representation.

for 3/8 we get (ugh, we have to go for 24ths here too as 4×6 and 3×8)

0/24, 4/24, 8/24, 12/24, 16/24, 20/24. 24/24

3/8 = 9/24

so, the closest number to 9/24 is 8/24 (= 2/6), which we pick as representation.

and the estimated calculation is

10/12 - 3/8 = 5/6 - 2/6 = 3/6 = 1/2

did I say already that I don't like this ? that I don't see the advantage to the actual calculation ?

so, just in case : I don't like this (ugh) !

Answer:

Slope =6

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation is in the form: y = mx + b

Here, m is the slope & b is y-intercept

y = 6x + 2

m = 6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

rearrange the equation to the letter on the left side until you find an equation equal to one of the answers

Answer:

1:6

Step-by-step explanation:

=>            1500/9000

=>            1/6                          [ the hcf is 1500]

=>             1:6

Answer:

[tex]b^2 = 14[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

log(base)(power) = (exponent).

In this case: logb(14) = 2

Note the variable/number in place of each term. Set the equation:

base^power = exponent

[tex]log_b 14 = 2\\b^2 = 14[/tex]

[tex]b^2 = 14[/tex] is your answer.

~

Answer:

I  think i'm wrong i think it is C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C) 35

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is C because he sold 80 lemon pies and as the question states ten more than twice the number of apple pies were sold .

Subtract 80 by 10 and divide it by 2

80-10=70÷2 = 35

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

0.20 x 80 = 16

We can double check this by dividing :)

16/80 = 0.20 = 20%

Have an amazing day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

Answer:

257mm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

18*(3+15)/2 = 162

4*(15+5) =80

3+5 = 15

total = 257 mm^2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of composite figure:

Shape I:

Shape I is an triangle

base= 3 + 15 + 5 = 23 mm

height =  18 mm

[tex]\boxed{\text{Area of traingle = $\dfrac{1}{2}base*height$}}[/tex]

                          [tex]= \dfrac{1}{2}*18*23\\\\= 9*23\\\\= 207 \ mm^{2}[/tex]

Shape 2:

Shape 2 is an rectangle.

length = 15 + 5 = 20 mm

width = 4 mm

[tex]\boxed{\text{Area of rectangle = length * width}}[/tex]

                             = 20 *4

                             = 80 mm²

Shape 3:

length = 5 mm

widht = 3 mm

Area of shape 3 = 5 * 3 = 15 mm²

Area of the composite shape = 207 + 80 + 15

                                                   = 302 mm²