Basic growth media must be formulated to meet the diverse nutritional requirements of routinely cultivated bacteria, which includes supplying sources of carbon and nitrogen in various forms. If these nutrients are supplied in the form of animal extracts like peptone or beef extract, the growth medium is termed a complex medium.
The growth of bacteria and other microorganisms occurs in a nutrient-rich medium such as agar plates and nutrient broths. These mediums play a huge role in bacterial growth.
These mediums are of critical importance as they support and promote the growth of bacteria on a large scale by providing a sufficient amount of nutrients like carbon and nitrogen.
If the medium contains animal extracts like amino acids, minerals, and nutrients then it is called a complex medium which increases the number of bacteria.
The most common examples of such basic growth mediums are petri dishes, soy agar, and nutrient agar which are required widely for cell culture, bacterial, and microorganisms growth.
Moreover, additional serums and blood are also used to increase the growth rate of bacteria.
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According to david mechanic, which of these symptom characteristics is least likely to determine people's response to illness?
According to David Mechanic, the symptom characteristics which is least likely to determine people's response to illness is the cost of treatment and hospitalization and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Illness?This is referred to as an abnormal condition which negatively affects the structure and functions of organisms and is usually associated with symptoms such as fever, fatigue etc.
Cost of treatment and hospitalization according to Mechanic, won't really determine a person's response to illness because visible symptoms and its severity will make an individual respond faster as a result of the high discomfort being experienced in a direct manner.
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The options are:
a. Cost of treatment and hospitalization
b. Perceived severity of the illness
c. Visibility of the symptoms
d. The extent to which the symptoms interfere with normal daily functioning
A patient is diagnosed with localized periodontitis stage 2 grade a and plaque-induced gingivitis. does the patient require a re-evaluation 3-6 weeks after phase i therapy?
Three forms of periodontitis have been identified: (1) periodontitis, (2) necrotising periodontitis, (3) periodontitis as a direct manifestation of systemic diseases.
What is periodontitis?Gum disease, also known as periodontitis (per-e-o-don-TIE-tis), is a dangerous gum infection that harms soft tissue and, if left untreated, can kill the bone that supports your teeth. Periodontitis can result in tooth loss or cause teeth to become loose.
The majority of cases of periodontitis can be avoided. Poor dental hygiene is frequently to blame. You may significantly increase your odds of successfully treating periodontitis and lower your risk of having it by brushing at least twice a day, flossing every day, and scheduling routine dental exams.
Periodontitis, or advanced gum disease, is incurable and also known as periodontitis. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to take precautions to prevent getting periodontitis in Omaha, NE. By using appropriate dental hygiene practices, this can be accomplished.
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[ Brainliest ]
Why do you need to know your TTZ when planning a cardio workout?
A. TTZ is your time spent exercising.
B. TTZ is your heart rate when exercising that shows your effort level, or intensity,
is aerobic.
C. You don't need TTZ when planning a cardio workout.
D. You need to be below or above your TTZ for cardio exercise.
Answer:
B. TTZ is your heart rate when exercising that shows your effort level, or intensity, is aerobic.
This is what I think
Compare and contrast the potential relationship between poor health behaviors and good health behaviors
Good health behavior includes the activities performed by the person to stay healthy whereas poor health behavior includes ignoring those activities which are god for health and doing those which affect our body and are prone to illness.
Health behaviors are actions individuals take that have an effect on their health. They embody actions that lead to improved health, like intake well and being physically active, and actions that increase one's risk of illness, like smoking, excessive alcohol intake, and risky sensual behavior.
Smoking, excessive alcohol use, low levels of physical activity and poor diet are the risk factors for pathological state of ill health and premature mortality; these poor health behaviors usually cluster.
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The love canaal incident is significant to the field of environmental health because it showed that leaves and grass could safely be converted into usable mulch.
a. true
b. false
The love canal incident is significant to the field of environmental health because it showed that leaves and grass could safely be converted into usable mulch - False.
What is a love canal incident?A state of emergency at the Love Canal was declared in 1978 by state health commissioner Dr. Robert Whalen.
The commissioner suggested moving pregnant women and young children from the first two rings of houses closest to the canal and ordered the closure of the 99th Street School.
Nearly 22,000 tons of chemical waste, including polychlorinated biphenyls, dioxin, and pesticides, produced in the 1940s and 1950s, were dumped there after a canal that had been there before was abandoned.
Tests there found toxin levels 10 to 100 times higher.
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The nurse is assessing a healthy 2-year-old client. which assessment finding most concerns the nurse?
The nurse is assessing a healthy 2-year-old client and assessment the finding which most concerns the nurse is that the child speaks in one-word sentences.
A healthy 2-year-old should be talking, walking, climbing, jumping, running and active with energy. Tour kid should currently incorporate a growing vocabulary and acquires new words on a daily basis. She/he should know type shapes and colors and will even show an interest in potty coaching.
When finishing the health assessment for a 2-year-old kid, the nurse is ought to expect the kid to have interaction in parallel play.
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Which actions would the nurse perform for a patient who just sustained partial thickness burns on the hands and chest caused by a fire?
The nurse should assess for inhalation injury in a patient who just sustained partial thickness burns on the hands and chest caused by a fire.
Provide 100% humidified oxygen. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. It is important to check the patient for inhalation damage.There is a strong possibility that the patient breathed fumes because the patient's burns were brought on by a fire. The nurse should administer 100% humidified oxygen after evaluating the airway to ensure proper ventilation. The nurse should evaluate the patient's airway patency and respirations before making any intubation plans. If necessary, dry dressings can be placed over the wounds to protect them. Mechanical breathing may be required in the case of a major inhalation damage.Burns are frequently thought of as skin damage brought on by too much heat. Burns are more widely defined as traumatic wounds to the skin or other tissues, usually brought on by thermal exposures.Therefore, a number of treatment must be provided to a patient with partial thick burns.
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Udden infant death syndrome is associated with what risk factors?
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is associated with the risk factors of premature infants and intrauterine growth delay.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) – typically referred to as "infant death" – is that the fulminant, surprising an unexplained death of an apparently healthy baby. In the UK, around two hundred babies die suddenly and unexpectedly per annum. This statistic might sound dread, however SIDS is rare and also the risk of your baby dying from it is low.
Babies might be at a major risk of SIDS if: their mother smoke-dried, drank, or used medicine throughout maternity and when birth. Their mother had poor paternal care. They were born prematurely or at an occasional birth weight.
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The nurse is checking the traction apparatus for a client in skin traction. which finding would require the nurse to intervene?
The findings of Weights hanging and touching the floor would be needed by the nurse to be intervened for checking the traction.
What exactly is a traction device?Traction is most frequently used to apply pressure to a dislocated bone or joint, like a shoulder, by using tools like weights and pulleys. The joint is pushed back in place and maintained in place by the strain.
What are the different types of traction?Traction is also used to keep a group of muscles stretched, like the muscles in the neck.
Traction typically comes in two different forms that include skeletal traction and skin traction.
Traction serves are used to stabilize and support the body component when it is being guided back into position. Stabilize and realign bone fractures, such as a broken arm or leg, using traction.
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Objective observation is when the patient tell you what is wrong.
True
or
False
An older adult is having abdominal surgery. the nurse should assess the client for which postoperative concern related to normal changes in the integumentary system of an older adult?
The postoperative concern related to normal changes in the integumentary system of an older adult having an abdominal surgery that the nurse should assess is: (3) decreased healing.
Integumentary system is also called the exocrine system. It consists of organs like skin, hair, nails, glands, etc. The functions of integumentary system are: to protect the body from foreign invaders, to maintain the body temperatures, etc.
Abdominal surgery is performed to treat the injuries of the abdomen. The abdomen is the part of the body that consists of: stomach, liver, spleen, intestine, etc. Surgery may be due to infection, hernia, tumors or some other condition.
The question is incomplete, the complete question is:
An older adult is having abdominal surgery. the nurse should assess the client for which postoperative concern related to normal changes in the integumentary system of an older adult?
increased scarring.decreased melanin and melanocytes.decreased healing.increased immunocompetence.To know more about integumentary system, here
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Since penelope is a split-brain patient, we can infer that she likely has a history of __________.
Since Penelope is a split-brain patient, we can infer that she likely has a history of severe epilepsy.
What is epilepsy?A set of neurological illnesses known as epilepsy are non-communicable and are characterized by recurring epileptic episodes. Due to aberrant electrical activity in the brain, epileptic seizures can range in length from short, hardly perceptible bursts to prolonged, violent shaking. These incidents have the potential to cause accidents as well as physical harm, such as fractured bones. Seizures in epilepsy frequently repeat and may not have an immediate underlying cause. Epilepsy is not thought to exist in cases of isolated seizures brought on by a particular cause, such as poisoning.
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The nurse has placed a urinal between the legs of a client and instructed him to place himself onto the urinal. after covering the client with the bed linens, what would be the nurse's next action?
After covering the patient with bed linens, the nurse's next action would be:
Place the call bell and toilet paper near the patient and tell him to call when he's finished.
The nurse would also make certain that the bed was in the lowest position possible and would leave the patient if it was safe to do so. If possible, leave the patient alone to promote self-esteem and respect for privacy.
Use of URINAL:
The nurse should insist that the bedridden patient urinate into a urinal (a plastic or metal receptacle for pee) while still in bed. Nurses should give bedpans to female patients who are bedridden so they can collect their urine.
Procedure:
-Wash your hands completely.
-Prevent urine from getting on the patient's body or the bed.
-Stay by the helpless patient and, if necessary, seek aid from family members.
-Once the patient has peed, remove the urinal.
-In the sluice chamber, measure and empty the urine.
After Care:
-Help the patient wash their hands and perineum.
-Put the patient's body in the appropriate alignment.
-If needed, replace the bedding.
-Once the items have been cleaned, replace them.
-hand washing
-Record the action in the nurse's log and the quantity on the intake output chart.
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A nurse notices a patient from a different culture will not make eye contact during the assessment process. what does the lack of eye contact indicate to the nurse?
The Lack of eye Contact indicates the nurse's Belief in a cultural taboo.
How do you assess a patient's cultural beliefs and preferences?
A cultural nursing assessment is a methodical way to determine a person's beliefs, values, meanings, and behaviors while taking into account their past, present, and future as well as their social and physical environments. Ask about ethnic background, preferred religion, familial structure, food preferences, eating habits, and health practices when conducting a quick cultural assessment.Prior to the assessment, be aware of the main points to cover and how to do so without upsetting the patient or their family. Find out if you'll need an interpreter, and find a patient confidant who can help you understand the other culture. Interview additional medical professionals who are familiar with the patient to get pertinent details. Choose a method for gathering information, such as an official interview, a casual conversation, or observation.
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Which characteristics of a second degree thermal burn would the nurse expect to find during a patients physical assessment?
The characteristics of a second degree thermal burn which the nurse would expect to find during a patients physical assessment include a bright red burned area with moist, red, shiny vesicles and blister formation.
Second-degree thermal burns are conjointly referred to as “partial-thickness burns.” They have an effect on the highest layer of your skin and therefore the next layer below it. This sort of burn usually causes your skin to blister. Over time, blisters will pop open, giving your skin a wet or wet look. Some second-degree burns will leave scars.
To treat this burn, one should immerse in cool water for ten or quarter-hour, use compresses if running water is not out there, don't apply ice as It will lower vital sign and cause more pain and injury, and don't break blisters or apply butter or ointments, which may cause infection.
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How do students use of social media negatively impact their grades?
Answer: here
Explanation:
Reduced academic performance is one of the most important consequences of social networking overuse for students. The results of a study on medical students showed that students who used social networks and internet more than average had a poor academic achievement and low level of concentration in the classroom
Information or knowledge of a fact imputed by law to a person because the person could have discovered the fact by proper diligence and inquiry is known as what?
It is known ar constructive notice.
A health insurance plan pays for medical care only after the insured has first paid $1,000 out of pocket on an annual basis. the $1,000 annual cost is called?
A health insurance plan pays for medical care only after the insured has first paid $1,000 out of pocket on an annual basis and the $1,000 annual cost is called deductible.
Health insurance is a style of insurance that covers medical expenses that arise due to health problems. These expenses may well be associated with hospitalization prices, value of medicines or doctor consultation fees.
A health insurance plan offers comprehensive medical coverage against hospitalization charges, pre-hospitalization charges, post-hospitalization charges, machine expenses, etc. in addition, it offers compensation just in case of loss of financial gain as a results of associate accident. It does not supply any add-on cover.
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The nurse is planning care for a client with an hgb of 7.5 g/dl and a hct of 21.5 g/dl. which should the nurse include in the plan of care?
An client with 7.5g/dl of hgb indicates low hemoglobin level in body. An hct is a test which used to measure the amount of red blood cells in body. A normal hct in body should be in range of 40 to 50 %.
Anemia:A decrease in hemoglobin level in body leads to anemia. If the hemoglobin level decreases for short time is called acute anemia. If hemoglobin decreases for long time is called chronic anemia.
Hgb level in body indicates the hemoglobin level in body. The normal hemoglobin level in body in males in 14 g/dl and in females it is 12 g/dl. A 7.5 g/dl indicates that person is suffering from anemia.
A nurse should tell the patient to eat iron rich food, Sleep properly, Folic acid tablets should also given to the patient.
Some iron rich food are:
SpinachBeetrootDatesJaggeryFruits.Therefore, An client with 7.5g/dl of hgb indicates low hemoglobin level in body. An hct is a test which used to measure the amount of red blood cells in body. A normal hct in body should be in range of 40 to 50 %.
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A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your first action should be to?
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire and your first action should be to shut off the fuel supply.
A fuel line is a hose or pipe accustomed transfer fuel from one purpose in an object to a different. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency defines a fuel line as "all hoses or tube designed to contain liquid fuel or fuel vapor.
Fire result as of applying enough heat to a fuel supply, once you have got a full ton of chemical substance around. Because the atoms within the fuel heat up, they begin to vibrate until they break away of the bonds holding them along and are discharged as volatile gases. These gases react with chemical element within the encompassing atmosphere
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The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a client. the nurse determines that which finding should be reported to the primary health care provider (phcp)?
The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment on a client and the nurse determines that the finding which should be reported to the primary health care provider (PHCP) is presence of pulsation between the umblicus and the pubis.
An abdominal assessment is a portion of the physical examination that a doctor or nurse uses to clinically observe the abdomen of a patient for signs of malady.
Primary health care provider (PHCP) refers to a broad vary of health services provided by medical professionals within the community. Your general physician is a health care provider , so are nurses, pharmacists and allied health suppliers like dentists.
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Sophie suffered right hemisphere damage following a stroke. she is least likely to experience difficulty in?
If Sophie has experienced, right hemisphere damage, she is least likely to experience any kind of difficulty in understanding a step in a recipe.
Which cerebral cortex are directly attached to touch and posture?The cerebral cortex region that is located at the top of the head and present at the back is known as the parietal lobe. This part is known to receive sensory input for touch and body position.
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is directly involved in the process of hearing?One of the cerebral cortex’s four main lobes is the temporal lobe. It is primarily responsible for understanding any kind of sounds from the ears and is crucial for understanding and using language.
Which area of brain presents a swollen extension of the spinal cord?The lowest section of the brain and the brainstem or called as the medulla oblongata, often known as the medulla is the area that presents a swollen extension of the spinal cord.
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A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in an automobile accident. what process of fracture healing does the nurse understand will occur with this patient?
The process of fracture healing will be Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase.
what is Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase?
Surgery and immobilization only serve to speed up the healing process, which is eventually carried out by normal physiological processes. The three main stages of fracture healing are as follows.
The fracture occurs in the first phase (Reactive Phase), which is subsequently followed by an inflow of inflammatory cells and the creation of granulation tissue.Calcifications are deposited in the callus during the second phase (Reparative Phase), which results in the development of cartilage callus. Lamellar bone deposition is the result of this modification.The third stage, known as the remodeling phase, sees the bone revert to its typical form and regain full functionality.The angle of the fractures or dislocation also affects the bone's ability to regenerate completely. Two or fewer weeks prior to the completion of the remodeling phase, the bone marrow inside the fracture has healed.
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The complete question is :
1. A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in an automobile accident. What process of fracture healing does the nurse understand will occur with this patient?
a. Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase
b. Primary phase, secondary phase, third phase
c. First intention, secondary intention, third intention
d. Active phase, dormant phase, restructure phase
Which surgical settings are preferred sites for a patient who needs cataract surgery?
Cataract surgery is related to the eye. A cataract is a condition that happens in old age.
What is a cataract?Cataract surgery is most common surgery in old people. Cataract surgery are safe. Cataract is a condition in which normal eye lens becomes cloudy. At the age of 40 normal eye lens start together and clump together. Symptoms of cataract are:
Dim visionSensitivity to light yellowing of colors.Double vision in a single eye.Instruments required for cataract surgery:
CaliperForcepsScissorsKarometerSpeculum wire.Cataract surgery is related to the eye. A cataract is a condition that happens in old age.
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Mental health is a state of well-being that...
a) can only be managed by a therapist.
b) helps you deal with life's changes.
c) deals with emotions inherited from your parents.
d) deals only with your thoughts.
Answer:
abilitie to cope with the normal stresses of life.
Explanation:
Answer: b
Explanation: its the only logical answer tbh
How do you hear colors
Answer:
Most humans cannot ¨hear¨ colors. However, about 4 percent of the people on Earth experience a mysterious phenomenon called synesthesia. This means they hear a sound and automatically see a color; or, they read a certain word, and a specific hue enters their mind's eye.
Explanation:
A clinic client's primary complaint is earache (otalgia). what question should the nurse include in the health interview?
The question nurse should include in health interview is "Have you been swimming lately?"
What is health interview?
The most adaptable diagnostic and therapeutic tool available to practicing doctors is the medical interview or health interview. However, one of the most challenging clinical skills to learn is interviewing. Both mental and emotional pressures are placed on the doctor. The interpersonal abilities required to connect with the patient and encourage conversation must be matched with the analytical capabilities of diagnostic thinking.
As mentioned in question, the clinic client's primary complaint is earache (otalgia). the question nurse should include in the health interview would be "Have you been swimming lately?".
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During the administration of anesthesia, a case was complicated by emergency conditions. the type of code to report this occurrence with an addition to the anesthesia code would be?
The type of code to report the occurrence of emergency conditions with an addition to the anesthesia code would be Qualifying circumstance code.
What is anesthesia?Anesthesia, which is induced for therapeutic reasons, is a controlled, brief loss of feeling or awareness. It could involve some, all, or none of the following: analgesia (pain alleviation or prevention), paralysis (muscle relaxation), amnesia (loss of recollection), and unconsciousness. A person who is anesthetized is one who is under the influence of anesthetic medications.
Anesthesia makes it possible to execute surgeries that would be technically impossible or would otherwise cause a patient to experience acute or intolerable pain.
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A nurse administers anticholinergics to a client as a postoperative medication. what condition does this medication help to prevent?
Anticholinergics administered by the nurse as postoperative medication, help to prevent Laryngospasm.
Atropine and glycopyrrolate, two anticholinergics are used to lessen pulmonary and oral secretions and avoid laryngospasm. Anticholinergic medicines have little effect on cardiovascular problems, motion sickness, or shock. (less)
A temporary and reversible vocal cord spasm known as laryngospasm makes it difficult to breathe or talk for a short period of time.
The larynx, the voice box at the top of the windpipe (trachea), has two fibrous bands known as the vocal cords.
What Brings About Laryngospasm?Laryngospasms can be caused by a variety of factors, including GERD, asthma, allergies, exercise, irritants (smoke, dust, fumes), stress, and anxiety.
How may a laryngospasm be stopped?A few straightforward methods could reduce the spasm:
After holding your breath for five seconds, take a calm, nasal breath. With your lips pursed, exhale.
Divide a straw in half. When under attack, cover the straw with your lips and take all of your breaths via it, not your nose.
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You come upon a patient who is unresponsive and is not breathing. you had heard from her nurse that she had discussed a do not resuscitate (dnr) order with her physician. you should?
Start resuscitation procedures right away and call a code.
Resuscitation efforts should be started when there is any uncertainty about a do not resuscitate (DNR) order or when written directions are absent. The majority of the time, formal or informal orders like "code gray" or "slow code" are utilized, which ignore the patient's rights.Depending on the country, a do-not-resuscitate (DNR), Do Not Attempt Resuscitation (DNAR), Do Not Attempt Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (DNACPR), no code, or allow natural death order is a medical directive that states that cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should not be administered if a person's heart stops beating. These choices, as well as the pertinent documentation, can occasionally include choices for additional vital or life-sustaining medical measures. DNR orders have different legal standing and procedures depending on the country.Therefore, start resuscitation procedures should be started right away.
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