A train is traveling at 50 miles per hour. What is the train?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

m∠1 = 65°

Since. ∠1 and ∠2 are the angles of linear pair,

m∠1 + m∠2 = 180°

65° + m∠2 = 180°

m∠2 = 115°

m∠1 = m∠3 [Vertical angles]

m∠3 = 115°

Since, ∠1 and ∠4 is the linear pair of angles,

m∠1 + m∠4 = 180°

65° + m∠4 = 180°

m∠4 = 180 - 65 = 115°

m∠4 + m∠5 = 180° [Consecutive interior angles between the parallel lines]

115° + m∠5 = 180°

m∠5 = 180° - 115° = 65°

m∠5 + m∠6 = 180° [Linear pair of angles]

65° + m∠6 = 180°

m∠6 = 115°

m∠5 = m∠7 [Vertical angles]

m∠5 = m∠7 = 65°

m∠6 = m∠8 [Vertical angles]

m∠6 = m∠8 = 115°

Step-by-step explanation:

b - no:of students on bus

V - " " on van

so the eqtn is

12v+10b=698

14v+2b=244

so when you solve these two eqtns you get

V=9

b=59

Answer:

The Drama Club scan sell all 100 student tickets at max if they reach their goal of $800.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

E2020

Answer: Well I believe the answer is Y= x - 55

Step-by-step explanation:Hope that works :)

[tex]\large\underline{\underline{\red{\rm\blue{\longmapsto} Step-by-step\: Explanation:-}}}[/tex]

Given that , a dealer bought an article for Rs 1500 and sold it at a profit of 20% .

So , here ,

Since the article is sold at profit , the Selling price of the article will equal to Cost price + 20% of cost price .

Firstly let's Calculate 20% of 1500 .

= 20% of Rs 1500 .

= 20/100 × Rs 1500 .

= Rs 300 .

Hence we can find now Selling price as ,

[tex]\boxed{\green{\bf Selling\: Price=Cost\:Price+Profit}}[/tex]

⇒ SP = CP + Profit .

⇒ SP = Rs ( 1500 + 300 ).

⇒ SP = Rs 1800 .

Hence the required answer is Rs 1800.

0.2 or 2/9 in fraction form I believe.

Answer:

The answer is -2/Trust

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Its D 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The minimum horizontal force that must be applied to keep the bag moving  at constant velocity once it has started to move is 16 newtons.

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the First and Second Newton's Laws, an object has net force of zero when it is at rest or moves at constant velocity. Given that bag rests on a horizontal surface, the equation of equilibrium is:

[tex]\Sigma F = P - f = 0[/tex] (Eq. 1)

Where:

[tex]P[/tex] - Horizontal force exerted on the bag, measured in newtons.

[tex]f[/tex] - Kinetic friction force, mesured in newtons.

From (Eq. 1), we get that horizontal force is:

[tex]P = f[/tex]

On the case of a horizontal surface, normal force exerted from ground on the bag and kinetic friction force is:

[tex]f = \mu_{k}\cdot W[/tex] (Eq. 2)

Where:

[tex]\mu_{k}[/tex] - Kinetic coefficient of friction, dimensionless.

[tex]W[/tex] - Weight of the bag, measured in newtons.

Then we eliminate kinetic friction force by equalizing (Eqs. 1, 2):

[tex]P = \mu_{k}\cdot W[/tex]

If we know that [tex]\mu_{k} = 0.2[/tex] and [tex]W = 80\,N[/tex], then the horizontal force that must be applied to is:

[tex]P =0.2\cdot (80\,N)[/tex]

[tex]P = 16\,N[/tex]

The minimum horizontal force that must be applied to keep the bag moving  at constant velocity once it has started to move is 16 newtons.

Answer:

[tex]y = - 4x - 3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]y - 1 = - 4(x + 1) \\ y - 1 = - 4x - 4 \\ y = - 4x - 3[/tex]

Examine the operations above.

Answer:

$105.22

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1,2,3 are Natural Numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

May i please get brainiest.

The answer:

Natural Numbers

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Your answer is -1 because you replace the variable n with 6. 42/6 = 7. 8-7 = -1

Answer:

29° and 58°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since XY bisects ∠ WXZ then ∠ WXY and ∠ ZXY are congruent, thus

∠ ZXY = ∠ WXY = 29°

∠ ZXW = ∠ WXY + ∠ ZXY = 29° + 29° = 58°

Answer:

x1= -6.6   x2= 8.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x1= -6.6, x2= 8.6

Step-by-step explanation:

|x-1|-1.4=6.2

|x-1|=6.2+1.4

|x-1|= 7.6

x-1=7.6 or x-1= -7.6

x= 8.6 and x= -6.6

Answer:

0.07

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the 6th new visitor is the first to create an account is approximately 0.059.

Probability can be defined as the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total number of events.

Here,
The probability of success (creating an account) on any given trial is p = 0.10, and the probability of failure (not creating an account) is q = 1 - p = 0.90.

The probability that the first success occurs on the 6th trial is then given by:

P(V = 6) = (q⁵) * p

where q⁵ is the probability of having 5 failures in a row (i.e., the first 5 visitors not creating an account), and p is the probability of the 6th visitor creating an account.

Plugging in the values,

P(V = 6) = (0.90⁵) * 0.10 = 0.059049

Rounding to the nearest thousandth,

P(V = 6) ≈ 0.059

Therefore, the probability that the 6th new visitor is the first to create an account is approximately 0.059.

Learn more about probability here:

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Answer:

x+2y=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope of given line = 2

Slope of the perpendicular line = -1/2

Equation of perpendicular line is (y-y1)=m(x-x1)

y-(-3)=-1/2(x-(-4))

y+3=-1/2(x+4)

2y+6=-x-2

x+2y=-8

Answer:

Una taza de vidrio tiene líneas verticales de simetría que pasan por la mitad del ancho perpendicular a la base.

Por lo tanto, una copa de vidrio bidimensional tiene una línea de simetría

Un par de anteojos tiene una línea de simetría que pasa por el punto medio del puente y es perpendicular al puente.

Una piñata de 6 puntas tiene tres ejes de simetría que atraviesan los tres pares lineales de piñatas.

Un jarrón bidimensional sin flores tiene líneas de simetría que pasan por el punto medio de la base y son perpendiculares a la base.

Una escalera simple tiene dos líneas de simetría, una que pasa por el punto medio y es perpendicular a la base, la otra es la línea de simetría horizontal que pasa por el punto medio de la longitud de la escalera y es perpendicular a la longitud de la escalera.

Step-by-step explanation:

The terms in which value of x when substituted leaves final value of p(x) = "0".

Here, x - 2 is factor. So value of x is 2.  

Substituting value of x we get,

p(x) = x3 - 3x + 5a

p(2) = 2*3 - 3(2) + 5a

0+ 8-6 + 5a

-2 = 5a

a= -0.4

Plz mark me as brainliest

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

One way to find the least common multiple of two numbers is to first list the prime factors of each number. Then multiply each factor the greatest number of times it occurs in either number. If the same factor occurs more than once in both numbers, you multiply the factor the greatest number of times it occurs.

When you make a list it will look something like this::

5-5,10,15,20

20-20

Answer:

1 over 10

Step-by-step explanation:

I guessed

Answer:

f(3) =3(2)+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Therefore, x = 2

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i just want points to upload a post sry

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

8 - 2x = -8x + 14

-2x + 8x = 14 - 8

6x = 6

x = 1

x=1 is the solution of the equation 8 - 2x = -8x + 14

Two or more expressions with an Equal sign is called as Equation.

The given equation is 8 - 2x = -8x + 14

x is the variable in the equation

Plus and minus are the operators

We have to solve for x

Take the variable terms one side and constants on other side

8x-2x=14-8

6x=6

Divide both sides by 6

x=1

Hence, x=1 is the solution of the equation 8 - 2x = -8x + 14

To learn more on Equation:

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Answer:

False

Step-by-step explanation:

0 has unlimited numbers of factors because 0 times everything equals 0. If 0 is not included then the statement is true.