. A right triangle is drawn inside a sphere, and the hypotenuse is 12 cm. What is the radius of the sphere? Round your final answer to the nearest hundredth.

Answer:

i think its 0.0392

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if its wrong

Answer:

Raj is working on a craft that requires ribbon. He measures and records the lengths of the ribbon pieces he has. This line plot shows his results.

How much longer is one of the longest pieces of ribbon than one of the shortest pieces of ribbon?

1 in.

78 in.

34 in.

12 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

34 in ANSWER

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Ó╭╮ÒÓ╭╮ÒÓ╭╮ÒÓ

Answer: 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answers will be in the photos.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps, and also my work might be little missy. :/

Answer:

3√2

Step-by-step explanation:

perform factorisation

√18 = √ 2 × 3 × 3

= 3√2

Answer:

4) 2,400

5) The graph is going up by 500's and this could be misleading because you would have to estimate the elevation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it depends

Step-by-step explanation:

for 4 you could say mountain a is 2,250 feet higher or that it is x% higher.

for 5 you could put "the graph may be misleading because the graph starts at a non-0 number thus making one mountain seem much taller than the other" because both mountains start at 16,500 and not 0 making the difference seem more extreme than it is.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

Use the formula for the Area of a Triangle to find the number of square feet the paint will have to cover.

Formula

Area = 1/2 base * height

Givens

b = 20 feet

h = 21 feet

Solution

Area = 1/2 * 20 * 21

Area = 1/2 * 420

Area = 210 square feet

Answer:

6/41

Step-by-step explanation:

6 + 7 + 20 + 8 = 41 so that is number of tiles he took. 6 of those were 41 so therefore, the chance is 6/41

Answer:

There are four red marbles and six blue marbles in all, for a total of ten marbles.

Without replacement, the probability of the first marble being blue is 6/10, while the probability of the second marble being red is 4/9.

The probability of both events occurring is reduced to 4/15 by multiplying 6/10 * 4/9 = 24/90.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark me brainliest

Answer:

The answer should Be A. 64 I say this because lets say the constant rate is +4 so what should we do from there. Do 4*16 to get 64.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this Helps

Have A Great Day

~Zero~

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

STEP

1

:

           1

Simplify   —

           3

The equation at the end of step

1

:

 12       1

 —— +  (((—)2) • 9) • 3)

 4        3

STEP

2

:

Equation at the end of step

2

:

 12       1

 —— +  ((—— • 9) • 3)

 4       32

STEP

3

:

Canceling Out:

3.1      Canceling out  32 as it appears on both sides of the fraction line

Equation at the end of step

3

:

 12    

 —— +  (1 • 3)

 4    

STEP

4

:

           3

Simplify   —

           1

Equation at the end of step

4

:

 3 +  3

STEP

5

:

Pulling out like terms

5.1      Pull out     3

After pulling out, we are left with :

     3 • ( 1 - (-1) ))

Final result :

 6

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

12÷4+(1/3)²⋅9⋅3

Pemdas

Exponents

Multiplication

Division

Addition

Subtraction

*For multiplication and division, whichever one comes first (left to right) will be used first. The same goes for addition and subtraction.*

12 ÷ 4 + 1/3⋅1/3 ⋅ 9 ⋅ 3

12 ÷ 4 + 1/9 ⋅ 9 ⋅ 3

12 ÷ 4 + 1 ⋅ 3

3 + 1 ⋅ 3

3 + 3

6

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

6/2(1+2)

6/2(3)

6/2=3

3(3)=9

Answer:

a.  the relationships between the area of walls left to paint and the time they have been working

b. Company 1

c. Company 2

d. Company 1 = 147 hours, company 2 = 162 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

a. The linear functions model the relationships between the area of walls left to paint and the time they have been working.

b. Company 1 is painting faster because the first line has a slope of -1000/7 while the second line has a slope of -100/9, which means Company 1 is painting 100 ft^2 every 7 hours while Company 2 is painting 100 ft^2 every 9 hours. Therefore Company 1 is going faster.

c. Company 2 had less area to paint when they began because at the 0 hour mark, company 1 had 2100 ft^2 to paint and company 2 had 1800 ft^2 to paint.

d. Company 1 will take 21*7=147 hours to finish. Company 2 will take 18*9=162 hours to finish.

I hope these solutions were helpful. Happy mathing!

Answer:

the first blank is 118.4 and the second blank is 381.6

Step-by-step explanation

basically u multiply

Answer:

4/9

Step-by-step explanation:

need more words to send

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

There are at least 2 ways you could do this. The best way is to use algebra. The trick is to equate 0.444444 to x, and then create a second equation by multiplying the first equation by 10. In doing this, you can subtract the two equations and that will get rid of the decimal.

10x = 4.444444...

  x =    .444444...             Now subtract these 2 equation

9x = 4                               Divide both sides by 9

9x/9 = 4/9

x = 4/9.

Since you are given choices, you could put each one into your calculator.

1/9 = 0,111111 not the answer.

40 /99 = 0.40404040 which is close but not the answer.

4 / 99 = 0.040404 ... which again is close but not the answer.

Answer:

(2x)/((x-3)(x+1))-(5)/((x-3)(x+4))

Answer : Add Both Together And You Get = 84

Brushes :  8 * 3 = 24

Paints : 10 * 6 = 60

Answer:

8/8

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two pies, and each one was cut into fourths. There are four fourths in a whole, and since there are two wholes, there are two four fourths (I don't know if this makes sense).

Basically, multiply how many fourths (four per pie) by how many pies there are.

4 x 2 = 8

There are 8 pieces.

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of x and y based on the percentages that are given will be 11 and 7.

How to calculate the percentage

Since x is 110% of 10. This will be;

= 110% × 10

x = 11

Since y% of 50 is 3.5. This will be:

y% × 50 = 3.5

y% = 3.5/50

0.01y = 3.5/50

y = 7

Therefore, it can be seen that value of x and y based on the percentages that are given will be 11 and 7.

Answer:

A proportional relationship between a quantity y and a quantity x that has a constant of proportionality k is represented by the equation y = kx.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4:7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[C] [tex]\frac{6\;days}{x\;Hours}=\frac{1\;day}{24\;Hours}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, we know that

1 Day = 24 Hours

6 Days = x Hours

Cross Multiply:

6 x 24 = 144

1x = 144

x = 144

144 = 144

Hence, the best answer is [C] [tex]\frac{6\;days}{x\;Hours}=\frac{1\;day}{24\;Hours}[/tex]

~lenvy~

The following proportions could be used to convert 6 days to hours as 1 day : 24 hours :: 6 days : x hours.

A mathematical assessment of two numbers is called a proportion. If two sets of provided numbers rise or fall in the same relation, then the ratios are said to be directly proportional to each other.

There is a way to convert 6 days to hours, to use the proportion:

⇒ 1 day : 24 hours :: 6 days : x hours

This proportion shows the relationship between days and hours, and can be used to convert from one unit to the other. To solve for x, we can cross-multiply and divide:

x = 6 days × 24 hours / 1 day = 144 hours

So, 6 days is equivalent to 144 hours.

Hence, the correct answer would be an option (C).

Learn more about the proportion here:

brainly.com/question/1504221

#SPJ2

Answer:

3 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

2/12 = 1/6

1/6 * 3 = 3/18

3 out of 18 cups, so 3 cups.

Answer:

2 by3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 5 over 4

Because I noticed that the other 3 fractions are proper fractions but this one is improper so does not belong Because the numerator is bigger than the demonator. So it is improper and different and does not belong . PLEASE GIVE BRAINLIEST

Answer: the "first" 1 is right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.02

use BODMAS

⇒ 0.6 ÷ 30

⇒ (0.6 ÷ 3) ÷ 10

⇒ 0.2 ÷ 10

⇒ 0.02

Let's see

3×10=30

So

Answer:

D.75 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

We already have our first value 15 and the second value 20. Let's assume the unknown value is Y which answer we will find out.

As we have all the required values we need, Now we can put them in a simple mathematical formula as below:

STEP 115 = 20% × Y

STEP 215 =

20

100

× Y

Multiplying both sides by 100 and dividing both sides of the equation by 20 we will arrive at:

STEP 3Y = 15 ×

100

20

STEP 4Y = 15 × 100 ÷ 20

STEP 5Y = 75

Finally, we have found the value of Y which is 75 and that is our answer.

You can easily calculate 15 is 20 percent of what number by using any regular calculator, simply enter 15 × 100 ÷ 20 and you will get your answer which is 75

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

15 is 20% of What Number?

15 is 20% of What Number? - 15 is 20% of 75. 100% of 75 is 75, therefore 20 percent of 75 equals 15. To learn how to solve 15 is 20 percent of what number, see the step by step instructions below.

15 is 20 Percent of What Number?

75

Formula = Number x 100

Percent = 15 x 100

20 = 75

Following shows the steps on how to derive this formula and find out 20% of what number is 15.

Step 1: If 20% of a number is 15, then what is 100% of that number? Setup the equation.

15

20% = Y

100%

Step 2: Solve for Y

Using cross multiplication of two fractions, we get

20Y = 15 x 100

20Y = 1500

Y = 1500

100 = 75