The nursing assessment associated with a contrast CT scan, which is scheduled as part of the diagnostic workup for a patient who presents to the ER with a three-week history of left-sided headache are: Obtaining a detailed history of the patient's symptoms, Obtaining baseline vital signs, Evaluating the patient's allergies and medications, Monitoring the patient's vital signs throughout the scan, Assessing the patient for contrast-induced adverse reactions, Providing patient education about the procedure.
Prior to undergoing a contrast CT scan, it is critical to perform a complete nursing assessment, which includes: Obtaining a detailed history of the patient's allergies, including those to food, contrast agents, and medication.
A baseline blood pressure measurement is taken, as well as a review of the patient's cardiac status. It is critical to determine if the patient is suffering from renal dysfunction or if they have a history of renal dysfunction. If the patient has diabetes, the nurse should confirm that they have taken their insulin or other diabetes medications, as well as the most recent glucose level.
It's crucial to verify that the patient's physician has submitted an order for the contrast CT scan and that the order is accurate. if the patient has any form of metallic objects, such as a pacemaker or aneurysm clips, that would make it impossible for them to undergo the scan. If so, the doctor should be notified.
Obtain signed informed consent for the procedure. Explain the procedure, including the use of contrast media, and provide clear and detailed pre- and post-care directions.
The patient should not eat or drink for at least 4 hours prior to the procedure. If a patient has a history of claustrophobia, premedication may be necessary to ensure they can endure the procedure.
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Darla Huntley, RMA, works in a pulmonology practice. She has been instructed to schedule Betty Robinson for a spirometry within one week. Ms. Robinson has never had one before. After the procedure is scheduled, what information should Darla provide Ms. Robinson to ensure that she is prepared on the day of her test? Under what health-related circumstances would Darla need to reschedule the test for Ms. Robinson? How many maneuvers must be completed for Ms. Robinson's PFT to be considered successful on the day of her testing?
Answer:
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that spirometry is a simple test for figuring out how well the lungs work. During the test, the patient will be asked to take a deep breath and then blow as hard as they can into a mouthpiece connected to a spirometer. The spirometer will measure how much air the patient can blow out of their lungs and how fast they can do it.
Advice on medication: Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that she shouldn't use any bronchodilator inhalers, like albuterol, for four to six hours before the test.
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson when to expect her at the test and how long the test is likely to last.
Wear clothes that are comfortable. Darla should tell Ms. Robinson to wear clothes that are comfortable and won't make it hard for her to breathe.
Darla might have to reschedule Ms. Robinson's test if something goes wrong with her health. For example, if Ms. Robinson has recently had chest surgery, a heart attack, or a stroke, Darla may need to reschedule the test to avoid any possible health risks.
For Ms. Robinson's spirometry test to be successful, she must do at least three things that give acceptable and repeatable results. If Ms. Robinson can't do three maneuvers, Darla may have to reschedule the test to make sure the results are correct.
Major source:
American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society. (2005). ATS/ERS statement on respiratory muscle testing. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 171(8), 866-878. doi: 10.1164/rccm.200401-044STa nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who has developed rapid, irregular respirations with periods of apnea. which additional assessment finding should the nurse identify as an indication of respiratory distress syndrome (rds)?
The nurse caring for a preterm newborn who has developed rapid, irregular respirations with periods of apnea should identify additional assessment findings such as retractions, tachypnea, nasal flaring, grunting, and cyanosis as indications of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS).
Retractions occur when the baby is trying to inhale, and the intercostal muscles pull in between the ribs. Tachypnea is when the baby is breathing faster than usual.
Nasal flaring is when the nostrils widen when the baby is trying to inhale. Grunting is when the baby makes a noise when exhaling. Cyanosis is when the skin has a blue or gray tinge, especially around the mouth and nail beds.
The nurse should also evaluate oxygen saturation levels as well as listen to the baby's chest with a stethoscope for crackles, which are abnormal noises heard when airways are partially blocked with fluid. In addition, the nurse should assess the baby's chest X-ray to identify any collapsed alveoli. A diagnosis of RDS is typically confirmed with a chest X-ray.
The nurse should also assess the baby's temperature and take the necessary precautions if the temperature is low due to decreased levels of insulation, such as adjusting the temperature in the nursery and providing a warmer environment. In addition, the nurse should assess the baby's weight, height, and head circumference to determine if the baby is growing adequately.
If the nurse notices any of these additional assessment findings like retractions, tachypnea, nasal flaring, grunting, and cyanosis, they should inform the doctor about the possible indication of Respiratory Distress Syndrome and take the necessary precautions. The nurse should also monitor the baby's respiration and oxygen saturation levels regularly to ensure proper treatment.
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a school-age child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has soccer practice three afternoons a week. the nurse reinforces instructions regarding how to prevent hypoglycemia during practice. which would the nurse tell the child?
The nurse would instruct the child with type 1 diabetes mellitus to bring a snack with them to soccer practice to prevent hypoglycemia. This snack should contain carbohydrates and should be eaten around 30 minutes before practice begins.
Additionally, the nurse could instruct the child to check their blood sugar before, during, and after practice and to inform their coach if their blood sugar is below 70 mg/dL so that they can take a break to treat their hypoglycemia.
If the child suffers from frequent episodes of hypoglycemia, they should also take extra snacks and sugar sources like juice or candy with them to practice in case of an episode. The nurse should also instruct the child to inform their coach if they feel any symptoms of hypoglycemia such as dizziness, confusion, or headaches. By following these instructions, the child will be able to prevent hypoglycemia and stay safe during soccer practice.
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a woman has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis and asks the nurse when it would be safe to resume sexual activity. how should the nurse respond?
The nurse should tell her to refrain from sexual activity until she and her sexual partner(s) have completed treatment and no longer have symptoms of trichomoniasis.
Trichomoniasis is an infection caused by a parasite that is commonly transmitted by sexual activity. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI).
If she is on medication, the nurse should inform her of the medication's importance and tell her to follow the doctor's instructions carefully to halt the reoccurrence of disease.
It's also a good idea for people who have been diagnosed with trichomoniasis to be tested for other STIs because they are more likely to contract them.
Using condoms will help to lower the risk of contracting or spreading sexually transmitted infections such as trichomoniasis.
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what are some needs medical users might need during a public health crisis, medical emergency or during routine communication
Medical users, such as healthcare professionals and patients, may have different needs during a public health crisis, medical emergency, or routine communication.
What are the medical needs?Here are some examples:
During a public health crisis:
Access to accurate and up-to-date information about the crisis and how to respond to it
Personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect themselves and others from infection
Clear communication channels to coordinate responses and share information with other healthcare providers
Adequate staffing levels and resources to meet the increased demand for medical services
Mental health support to cope with the stress and emotional toll of the crisis
During a medical emergency:
Immediate access to medical care and emergency services
Accurate and timely communication between healthcare providers and emergency responders
Access to necessary medical equipment and supplies to stabilize and treat the patient
Support for the patient's family and loved ones during the emergency and in its aftermath
During routine communication:
Clear and effective communication between healthcare providers and patients to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment
Access to medical records and information to inform treatment decisions
Support for patients with disabilities or language barriers to ensure equal access to medical care and information
Patient education and counseling to promote healthy behaviors and prevent illness or injury.
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.A nurse finds an elderly woman helpless and alone after the unlicensed caretaker quit without notifying the agency. The nurse is then fired for reporting the caretaker for possible abuse and neglect. Does the nurse have protection from negative employment action for reporting the above incident to the appropriate authorities?
Answer: It depends
Explanation:
The nurse may be protected, but only if the nurse can prove that the client was in an unsafe situation.
What is a example of medicine
Answer: homeopathy
Explanation: Homeopathy is a "treatment" so it is a type of drug or medicine .
Answer:
not sure what you meant so i put 2 things
Explanation:
liquids that are swallowed.drops that are put into ears or eyes.creams, gels, or ointments that are rubbed onto the skin.inhalers (like nasal sprays or asthma inhalers)patches that are stuck to skin (called transdermal patches)MetforminLosartanAntibioticsAlbuterolAntihistaminesGabapentinOmeprazolethe nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory work before administering a large-volume enema. which laboratory result indicates that a nurse should confer with the health care provider before administering the enema?
As a nurse, it is necessary to review a client's laboratory work before administering a large-volume enema. An abnormal laboratory result may indicate that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before administering an enema.
An enema is a fluid injection into the lower colon via the rectum. This procedure is also known as an enema. It's usually a combination of water, laxatives, and other compounds. Enemas are often used to treat constipation and to clear the bowels before surgery.
The nurse should confirm with the healthcare provider before administering an enema if the client's laboratory results indicate an abnormality. The nurse should look for the following lab outcomes before administering an enema:
High electrolyte levelsLow electrolyte levelsBlood glucose levels elevatedLow blood glucose levelsLow platelet countHigh INR valuesLow INR valuesThere may be other laboratory results that the nurse should look for, depending on the client's medical history and the healthcare provider's orders. So, the answer to your question is not given since we do not know what laboratory reports the patient had.
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the nurse cares for preterm infants and assesses them for potential complications to provide adequate countermeasures to prevent father complications. which complication should the nurse prioritize and initiate proper measures to protect the newborn?
The nurse should prioritize respiratory distress syndrome and initiate proper measures to protect the newborn. Preterm infants are those infants who are born before 37 weeks of gestation.
Respiratory distress syndrome:
It is a medical condition that occurs in newborns, particularly those born prematurely. The surfactant, which is a liquid that coats the inner lining of the lungs, is not produced in sufficient quantities in premature infants, which can lead to respiratory distress. Respiratory distress syndrome is a medical emergency that necessitates prompt medical attention. The infant must be placed in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) to receive proper medical care. The nurse should prioritize respiratory distress syndrome and initiate proper measures to protect the newborn. The infant will be intubated to assist with breathing, and oxygen will be administered. The infant will be closely monitored to ensure that the oxygen concentration is appropriate.#SPJ11
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the nurse instructs you to stay in the room with mr. lawson and check his vital signs while she calls the ambulance. mr. lawson tells you he is very thirsty and asks for a drink. you should:
The nurse instructs you to stay in the room with Mr. Lawson and check his vital signs while she calls the ambulance. Mr. Lawson tells you he is very thirsty and asks for a drink. You should: Provide him with small amounts of water.
Mr. Lawson should be provided with small amounts of water to quench his thirst. When administering water, be careful not to give Mr. Lawson large amounts since this may worsen his condition.
Ambulance personnel may also give Mr. Lawson small amounts of water during transportation. Make sure to provide the ambulance personnel with information concerning any fluid that you gave Mr. Lawson.
What are vital signs?The human body has several vital signs that are critical to monitor for both healthy and sick individuals. Vital signs refer to measurements of the body's primary physiological processes, including respiration, temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure.
Vital signs are useful indicators of general health status and are regularly monitored by medical personnel during regular checkups or when individuals are hospitalized.
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a nurse is providing health teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old child who has been diagnosed with benign febrile seizures. what is the most important information for the nurse to give the parents about this disorder?
The most important information for the nurse to give the parents about this disorder is that benign febrile seizures are relatively common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years and are not life-threatening.
The seizures are usually brief and involve a full-body convulsion or a twitching of the arms and legs lasting up to 15 minutes. They are often caused by a sudden rise in body temperature due to a fever, and can be accompanied by a change in consciousness or a loss of consciousness.
It is important to note that most children do not have any long-term effects from these seizures, but it is still important to monitor the child and seek medical attention if the seizures become more frequent or last longer than 15 minutes.
The nurse should also provide the parents with an action plan for what to do if the child has a seizure, such as ensuring the child is in a safe environment, recording the duration of the seizure, and ensuring the child receives medical attention.
Lastly, the nurse should explain the importance of keeping the child's fever under control by regularly giving fever-reducing medications and encouraging the child to drink plenty of
fluids
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the nurse is assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum. the woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area. the nurse notes a local area on one breast to be red and warm to touch. what should the nurse consider as the potential diagnosis?
When assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum, a nurse should consider mastitis as the potential diagnosis if the woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area.
Mastitis is an inflammatory condition of the breast tissue that causes breast pain, swelling, warmth, and redness. It may occur during breastfeeding or as a result of infection or injury. It can lead to painful lumps, breast abscesses, and infection if not treated.
Mastitis is caused by the growth of bacteria in the milk ducts. Infections from Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, and Escherichia coli bacteria are common causes of mastitis. However, not all cases of mastitis are caused by infection. Milk stasis, plugged milk ducts, and cracked or sore nipples can also contribute to mastitis.
The symptoms of mastitis include the following:
Pain or burning sensation in the breastRedness and warmth in the breastSwelling of the breastTenderness to touchFlu-like symptoms (chills, fever, fatigue)Breast abscesses may develop if mastitis is not treated. A breast abscess is a pus-filled lump that can be quite painful. In addition, mastitis can lead to reduced milk supply if it causes blocked milk ducts. Hence, if a woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area, a nurse should consider mastitis as the potential diagnosis.
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which signs would the nurse recognize as indicative of missed abortion? select all that apply. vaginal bleeding products of conception partially expelled decrease in uterine size absent fetal heart rate subsiding nausea absence of breast tenderness
The signs a nurse would recognize are vaginal bleeding, products of conception partially expelled, decrease in uterine size, absent fetal heart rate.
Missed abortion refers to a pregnancy that has failed and is no longer progressing, but there have been no signs or symptoms of miscarriage such as vaginal bleeding or cramping.
Signs that a nurse would recognize as indicative of missed abortion are as follows:
Vaginal bleeding, products of conception partially expelled, decrease in uterine size and absent fetal heart rate.
Missed abortion symptoms can be subtle or severe. A missed abortion can be identified on a routine prenatal ultrasound or after a heart rate check. During a pelvic exam, the cervix may remain closed, and there may be no visible indication of a miscarriage. The cervix may also be open or dilated, with the placenta and other tissues coming out through the vagina.
Signs that a woman has had a missed abortion may include bleeding, which can range from spotting to heavy bleeding. In most instances, there is little or no pain, and no cramping. In some cases, the bleeding may continue for several days or weeks.
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the nurse develops a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with parkinson's disease. which of the following topics that the nurse plans to discuss is the most important? a. maintaining a balanced nutritional diet b. enhancing the immune system c. maintaining a safe environment d. engaging in diversional activity
The correct answer is C. Maintaining a safe environment. If the nurse develops a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, she should discuss the most important point of maintaining a safe environment
Parkinson's disease is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the ability to move and coordinate voluntary muscles. As a result of the disease, tremors, muscle rigidity, and changes in speech and gait can occur, and individuals with Parkinson's disease may fall frequently.
Maintaining a safe environment is important in order to minimize the risk of falls, which can lead to fractures and other injuries. Therefore, among the topics mentioned in the options, maintaining a safe environment is the most important topic that the nurse plans to discuss.
The nurse should advise the patient to remove throw rugs, clutter, and anything that could obstruct walkways in their home. A bed rail or commode may be needed to ensure the patient's safety.
The nurse can also suggest to the patient's family to install grab bars in the bathroom and shower and ensure that the patient has appropriate footwear with good support.
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the nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with long qt syndrome (lqts). when planning this client's care, the nurse should recognize what implication of the diagnosis?
The nurse should recognize the following implications of the diagnosis of long QT syndrome (LQTS) when planning care for a client who has just been diagnosed with it:
i) There is an increased risk of a person with LQTS developing a life-threatening arrhythmia, particularly torsades de pointes.
ii) There is an increased risk of sudden death due to cardiac arrest.
iii) Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities can be seen, but a normal ECG does not rule out LQTS.
iv) The severity of symptoms can vary widely, ranging from asymptomatic individuals to those with repeated episodes of fainting, life-threatening arrhythmias, and sudden death.
As a result, it is critical to identify those who are at greatest risk of an event and to consider therapy for patients with long qt syndrome.
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25. A patient is admitted to your unit with a
15-year history of COPD. The nurses
assessment should include monitoring for:
Papa, K. (2021). Essential In-services for Long-
term Care (2021st ed.). HCPro, a divison of
Simplify Compliance LLC. (Original work
published 2021)
Accessory muscle use with breathing
O Chest pain
According to the research, the correct answer is option B. In a patient that is admitted to your unit with a 15-year history of COPD, the nurses assessment should include monitoring for chest pain.
What is COPD?It is a disease characterized by a non-reversible obstruction of the bronchi that affects the airways or lungs and is accompanied by coughing and respiratory distress.
In this sense, nursing care in hospitalization of patients with COPD is based on identifying the initial manifestations of respiratory infections, signs that the disease may be decompensated, such as the appearance of chest pain, especially rib pain and in some cases increased dyspnea, fatigue, color change.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the nursing staff in the hospitalization area, in the application of the care of patients with COPD, should monitor for chest pain.
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which analysis and action would the nurse take when the three day of a new medication regimen of how paradol a patient is drooling has stiff and extended extremities has moist hot skin and difficulty responding verbally
The analysis and action that the nurse would take a new medication regimen of paradol is administering an antidote or consulting with a physician.
Paradol is a chemical substance that is used in the food industry for flavoring and fragrance purposes. The active ingredient in paradol, which is a natural component of ginger, is believed to have analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, among other health benefits. Paradol, on the other hand, can cause adverse effects if taken in high quantities.
The nurse should take the following analysis and action when the patient is displaying these symptoms after three days of taking a new medication regimen of paradol:
1. Check the patient's vital signs including temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure to see if they are within the normal range.
2. Assess the patient for any potential signs of side effects from the new medication, such as dry mouth, dizziness, or drowsiness.
3. Determine if the patient's drooling is related to the new medication, or due to a medical condition.
4. Perform a physical exam to assess the patient's stiff and extended extremities, moist hot skin, and difficulty responding verbally.
However , contact the patient's physician and report any changes in the patient's condition or the occurrence of any adverse reactions to the new medication.
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a client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. the nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. an esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. what would be the first activity performed by the nurse?
The first activity performed by the nurse should be to conduct an assessment of the patient's airway and respiratory function.
What is a foreign body? A foreign body is an object that gets into the body through unintended pathways. Most foreign bodies are swallowed or aspirated, but some can enter the body through open wounds, injected with needles or traumatic injuries.
Swallowing a foreign body is the most common form of foreign body ingestion and usually happens to children aged 1-3 years. A foreign body lodged in the throat can cause a severe obstruction of the airway, while a foreign body that has passed the throat can cause gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation.
The symptoms of foreign body ingestion depend on the location and type of foreign body. Children can experience gagging, drooling, difficulty swallowing, or irritability, while adults may experience choking, coughing, vomiting, or a sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat. In rare cases, foreign bodies can cause severe complications like infection, abscesses, or perforation.
After assessing the client's airway, the nurse should document the symptoms experienced by the client and report the incident to the physician. Once the physician has ordered an esophagogastroscopy with the removal of a foreign body, the nurse should prepare the client for the procedure and explain the process and risks involved.
The nurse should also monitor the client's vital signs and the respiratory status during the procedure and after the foreign body has been removed.
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a client who had oral cancer has had extensive surgery to excise the malignancy. although surgery was deemed successful, it was quite disfiguring and incapacitating. what is essential to this client and family?
The client who had oral cancer and their family need to focus on healing both physically and emotionally. This includes allowing the client to adjust to their new appearance, finding ways to cope with any changes in their lifestyle and finding support networks. It is also important to address any financial concerns that may have arisen as a result of their surgery.
The following are some of the key points that are essential:
Addressing the psychological and emotional effects of disfiguring surgery: The psychological effects of disfiguring surgery for oral cancer can be significant and long-lasting. As a result, the client and family will require emotional support during this time to help them cope with the changes in their appearance.
Addressing the physical effects of surgery: The client may require additional medical or rehabilitative services to help them manage their physical recovery after surgery. For example, if the client has difficulty speaking or swallowing, they may require speech therapy or nutritional counseling. Additionally, if the client has lost a significant amount of weight, they may need assistance with meal planning and preparation.
Addressing the financial implications of surgery: Disfiguring surgery can be expensive, and clients may require financial assistance or counseling to help them navigate the financial implications of their surgery. This may include accessing disability benefits or other forms of financial assistance. Informing the client and family about support groups and other resources.
These resources can help the client and family cope with the psychological, emotional, and physical effects of surgery, as well as provide them with practical assistance and information about their condition.
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which action is best for determining nursing care for the older adult client with functional incontinence related to altered cognition?
The best action for determining nursing care for the older adult client with functional incontinence related to altered cognition is assessment of the client's functional abilities and environmental considerations.
Functional incontinence occurs when the urinary tract is functioning normally, but a physical or cognitive impairment prevents a person from reaching the bathroom in time. This could be due to mobility limitations, such as arthritis or Parkinson's disease, or cognitive impairments such as dementia or delirium.
When a person has functional incontinence, it is critical to assess the client's functional abilities and environmental considerations to plan nursing care for the older adult client with functional incontinence related to altered cognition. It is crucial to assess cognitive and functional status, mobility, and the environmental factors contributing to incontinence, such as access to a bathroom, lighting, and a call bell system.
A comprehensive assessment of the patient's environment can help to eliminate barriers to accessing the bathroom, and if needed, providing additional toileting aids or other interventions to help reduce the client's incontinence. Some interventions that may help reduce incontinence include toileting schedules, pelvic floor exercises, and bladder retraining.
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an 89-year-old client is admitted to a nursing home and the nurse is reviewing the client's medical history and medications. the client was diagnosed with depression 4 months ago. which medication prescription does the nurse question?
The nurse would question the prescription of an antidepressant medication that has anticholinergic side effects for an 89-year-old client who was diagnosed with depression four months ago.
It is because anticholinergic medications are contraindicated in older people because they can cause cognitive impairments and increased risk of falls. Anticholinergic drugs cause dryness of the mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and confusion. These side effects are due to the fact that anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a chemical that helps to transmit nerve signals.The older adult population is more susceptible to these side effects because they may have decreased liver and kidney function, decreased clearance of drugs, and altered drug absorption. Therefore, anticholinergic drugs are not recommended for older adults suffering from depression.
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when a client has a recurrent, life-threatening arrhythmia originating either supraventricularly or ventricularly, ablation therapy is an option for treatment. what does ablation therapy do?
Patients with recurrent, life-threatening arrhythmias that originate either supraventricularly or ventricularly may benefit from ablation therapy.
An ablation procedure stops the irregular heartbeat and stops further episodes by destroying or removing the arrhythmia's source.
A catheter is used by the doctor to deliver radiofrequency energy or cold energy (cryoablation) to the specific region of the heart where the arrhythmia is occurring. This eliminates the arrhythmia by destroying the tissue that is generating the abnormal electrical signals.
This procedure is carried out in a hospital and typically lasts 2-4 hours.
Patients are observed for 24-48 hours following the procedure to make sure the arrhythmia has been treated and there are no complications.
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the fetus of a mother in active labor continues to have late decelerations with each contraction. the obstetric provider determines a cesarean birth is necessary. the nurse prepares the mother for the emergency surgery. when should the nurse stop external fetal monitoring?
In the scenario when the fetus of a mother in active labor continues to have late decelerations with each contraction and the obstetric provider determines a cesarean birth is necessary, the nurse should stop external fetal monitoring after the mother has been taken to the operating room.
Active labor: It refers to the stage of labor when the cervix has dilated to 3-4 centimeters and contractions are occurring every five minutes or less. It is the phase of childbirth when the baby descends into the birth canal and moves into the pelvis.Cesarean birth: It is a surgical procedure in which a baby is delivered through incisions made in the abdomen and uterus. Cesarean birth is also known as C-section delivery. This procedure is typically used in situations where the mother or the baby is at risk during vaginal delivery.External fetal monitoring: It is a method used to assess fetal well-being during labor. It involves the placement of two monitors on the mother's abdomen: one to measure contractions and the other to measure the baby's heart rate. This method can help identify fetal distress or other problems during labor.Contraction: It is a tightening of the uterus that occurs during labor. The contractions help push the baby through the birth canal and out of the body. During labor, contractions become more frequent and intense, helping the cervix to open and prepare for delivery.To learn more about cesarean birth: https://brainly.com/question/5105719
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a nurse is providing care for a diverse group of clients on a medical floor. which tasks may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (uap)? select all that apply.
A nurse is providing care for a diverse group of clients on a medical floor. Tasks that a nurse obtaining patient vital signs and reporting them to the nurse. Providing comfort to patients and providing emotional support to them.
Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as bathing, feeding, and dressing patients.
Arranging medical equipment, preparing beds and setting up rooms
Providing an explanation to patients about the activities they perform and informing the nurse of any new developments. During the delegation of tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), a nurse should monitor the work of the UAP closely. The nurse should assess the skill level of the UAP, ensure that the tasks are in the UAP's scope of practice, and provide the UAP with clear instructions about the task.
Therefore, the following tasks may a nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP): Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as bathing, feeding, and dressing patients, arranging medical equipment, preparing beds and setting up rooms, obtaining patient vital signs and reporting them to the nurse.
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The main function of the sympathetic innervation on the lungs is
Answer: Increases your breathing rate.
Explanation: The sympathetic system increases your breathing rate. It makes your bronchial tubes widen and the pulmonary blood vessels narrow.
the nurse in the nursery is told that a neonate at 32 weeks' gestation has been born. what adjustment in nursing care will the nurse make? select all that apply.
The nurse in the nursery is told that a neonate at 32 weeks' gestation has been born. The adjustments in nursing care that the nurse will make include the following:
Prevent hypothermia: The first step in the management of neonates is to prevent hypothermia. The nurse should ensure that the neonate is wrapped in a blanket to avoid loss of heat from the body. The temperature of the nursery should be maintained at 20 to 25°C.Maintain nutrition: The nurse will need to provide adequate nutrition to the neonate because it has been born prematurely. The nurse will make sure that the neonate is fed every two to three hours. The feeding may be via a nasogastric tube until the neonate is ready to take oral feedings.Watch for respiratory distress: The nurse will need to monitor the neonate for respiratory distress because it is a common problem in premature neonates. If the neonate shows signs of respiratory distress, the nurse will need to provide oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation as needed.Observe the newborn: The nurse will need to observe the newborn for signs of distress or complications, including hypoglycemia and hyperbilirubinemia, which are common in premature neonates.Provide emotional support: Finally, the nurse will need to provide emotional support to the parents, as having a premature baby can be emotionally challenging. By providing the parents with emotional support, the nurse can help to make the experience less stressful and more positive.To know more about "neonate" refer here:
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FILL IN THE BLANK. When performing the allen test, after applying pressure until the hand loses its pink tone, you should release pressure from the ___ artery
Answer:
radial
Explanation:
The Allen test is a first-line standard test used to assess the arterial blood supply of the hand. This test is performed whenever intravascular access to the radial artery is planned or for selecting patients for radial artery harvesting, such as for coronary artery bypass grafting or for forearm flap elevation.
Answer:
Radial
Explanation:
The original Allen test is performed by asking the patient to elevate both arms above the head for thirty seconds in order to exsanguinate the hands. Next, the patient squeezes their hands into tight fists, and the examiner occludes the radial artery simultaneously on both hands.
35. when lactulose 30 ml qid is ordered for a patient with advanced cirrhosis, the patient complains that it causes diarrhea. the nurse explains to the patient that it is still important to take the drug because the lactulose will a. promote fluid loss. b. prevent constipation. c. prevent gastrointestinal (gi) bleeding. d. improve nervous system function.
The nurse explains to the patient that it is still important to take the drug because the lactulose will prevent constipation. The correct answer is b.
What is lactulose?Lactulose is a synthetic, non-digestible sugar that is used in medicine to treat constipation and hepatic encephalopathy (a condition caused by high levels of toxins in the blood that affect brain function) in people with liver disease.
It functions by drawing water into the intestines, softening the stool and making it easier to pass through the colon. Lactulose is broken down into lactic acid and acetic acid in the colon, which acidifies the gut and decreases ammonia levels in the blood of people with liver disease.
What is cirrhosis? Cirrhosis is a late-stage liver disease that occurs when healthy liver tissue is replaced by scar tissue over a long period of time. This scar tissue can obstruct the flow of blood through the liver and impede its normal function, resulting in a variety of medical issues.
The condition is irreversible, but treatment can aid in the reduction of liver damage and progression. Cirrhosis is a late-stage liver disease that occurs when healthy liver tissue is replaced by scar tissue over a long period of time.
This scar tissue can obstruct the flow of blood through the liver and impede its normal function, resulting in a variety of medical issues. The condition is irreversible, but treatment can aid in the reduction of liver damage and progression.
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medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes can decrease the absorption of: group of answer choices vitamin b12. vitamin d. protein. vitamin c.
The medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes can decrease the absorption of Vitamin B12.
Vitamin B12 is a nutrient found in a variety of foods that helps keep the body’s nerve and blood cells healthy and helps make DNA, so it's important to get enough of it. Without enough Vitamin B12, you can have anemia, fatigue, and nerve damage. Heartburn is a painful burning sensation in the chest or throat that occurs when stomach acid leaks into the esophagus. Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is a digestive disorder in which stomach acid or bile irritates the food pipe lining. Diabetes is a disease that affects your blood sugar levels. This condition occurs when your body is unable to produce enough insulin or uses it inefficiently, causing blood sugar levels to rise.
Decreased absorption of vitamin B12 means that the body is not receiving enough vitamin B12 from the diet. When there is a vitamin B12 deficiency, the human body may experience several symptoms, including muscle weakness, tingling in the arms and legs, fatigue, anemia, and depression. . Medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes contain proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which suppress the production of stomach acid. PPIs can lead to a decrease in vitamin B12 absorption because it requires stomach acid to absorb vitamin B12.
Hence , PPIs prevent the stomach from producing enough stomach acid, which causes vitamin B12 absorption to decline. Individuals who take PPIs for an extended period of time are more likely to experience a vitamin B12 deficiency.
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What is 1 oz of salt plus 2 oz of salt
Answer: 3 oz of salt
Explanation: One plus two equals three