The nurse should use the term chronic.
A condition or illness that often lasts more than three months and can worsen over time. Older people are more likely to have chronic disorders that can usually be treated but not cured. Cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes and arthritis are the most common chronic disease categories. Inflammatory bowel disease includes Crohn's disease (IBD). It causes swelling (inflammation) of tissues in the digestive tract, which can lead to abdominal pain, severe diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and malnutrition.Those with Crohn's disease can develop inflammation in many parts of the digestive tract. Yes, most commonly in the small intestine. This inflammation often penetrates the innermost layer of the intestine. Crohn's disease can leave you feeling uncomfortable and helpless.Therefore, the correct answer is chronic.
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to obtain a scan using a(n) , a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
Positron emission tomography (PET) is used when obtaining a scan where a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is an imaging procedure that can assist in determining how your tissues and organs operate metabolically or biochemically. A radioactive substance (tracer) is used in the PET scan to display both regular and aberrant metabolic activity.
Before a sickness manifests itself on another imaging test, such as a computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a PET scan may frequently detect the aberrant metabolism of the tracer in disorders (MRI).
Most frequently, the tracer is injected into a vein in your hand or arm. The tracer will then gather in your body's regions with greater degrees of metabolic or biochemical activity, which frequently identifies the disease's location.
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According to recent dawn data, which of these substances is near the top of both the emergency room visits and drug-related deaths lists?
According to recent DAWN data, substance that is near the top of the emergency room visits list both the emergency room visits and drug-related deaths:
alcohol-in-combination
Drug Abuse Warning Network (DAWN)
The Drug Abuse Warning Network (DAWN) is a national public health monitoring system that collects data on recent emergency department (ED) visits related to drug use and abuse directly from participating hospital electronic medical records.
DAWN collects data on ED visits related to the following categories of substances or combinations of substances: alcohol, illicit drugs, prescription drugs, over-the-counter drugs (OTC), dietary supplements, non-pharmaceutical inhalants, and vaporized. material.
Sedation and lethargy, as well as the combined effects of the two drugs, will come when taking much more dawn with alcohol. People who consume alcohol and dawn may encounter side effects like impaired motor reflexes.
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Which term refers to the emt's initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint?
The term which refers to the emt's initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint is referred to as general impression.
What is Impression?
This is defined as a feeling or an opinion about something and is based on the little evidence which is provided due to the thoughts which aren't conscious.
General impression id usually based on the initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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pooled safety results through 1 year of 2 phase iii trials of guselkumab in patients with psoriatic arthritis proton rahman
Some persons with psoriasis experience psoriatic arthritis, a kind of arthritis. It is a condition that results in red skin areas covered in silvery scales.
Psoriatic arthritis:
Objective: To evaluate the safety of guselkumab (anti-interleukin [IL]-23p19 monoclonal antibody) in patients with psoriatic arthritis (PsA) through one year (1Y) of the phase III DISCOVER-1 and DISCOVER-2 trials.
METHODS: Patients with active PsA (n=1120; biologic naïve except for 118 patients with DISCOVER-1 who were treated with tumor necrosis factor inhibitors) were randomized to guselkumab 100 mg subcutaneously. were assigned every 4 weeks (Q4W) or week 0 and then every 4 weeks. 8 weeks (Q8W); or placebo. At week 24, the patient in the placebo group switched her to guselkumab 100 mg every 4 weeks.
Result: Through week 24, adverse events (AEs) were consistent between placebo and guselkumab. No uveitis, active tuberculosis, opportunistic infections, or inflammatory bowel disease were observed in the guselkumab-treated patient for 1 year, a low rate of malignancy and serious cardiovascular (CV) adverse events. was observed. Injection site reactions occurred in 1.7% and antibodies to guselkumab occurred in her 4.5% of patients treated with guselkumab for her 1 year.
Conclusion: Guselkumab 100 mg Q4W and Q8W were well tolerated in PsA patients with no new safety concerns during his one-year phase III DISCOVER trial. The safety of guselkumab over 1 year in patients with PsA is consistent with that in patients with psoriasis treated with guselkumab.
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patient-reported outcome measures in ms: do development processes and patient involvement support valid quantification of clinically important variables?
The quality of the data that PROs create has, up to this point, constantly suffered from a lack of conceptual frameworks, patient involvement, and precise definitions of the concepts of interest. To maximize the utility of pivotal clinical trials, more thorough PRO instrument development must be done.
Do patient involvement and the development process for patient-reported outcome measures in MS promote the reliable measurement of clinically significant variables?Background: Studies on multiple sclerosis (MS) frequently analyze patient-reported outcomes (PROs). However, there are issues with the validity of linked data due to the variability in the quality of instrument development processes.
objectives: Review the development of a few PROs that are frequently used in MS studies, paying particular attention to the ideas measured, the usage of conceptual frameworks, and the level of involvement from MS patients. to learn more about PlwMS's opinions and advice for using these PROs.
Results: There were frequently gaps in the definitions, explanations, and conceptualizations of the measuring variables. PlwMS participated in PRO development in a variety of ways. Rarely was ethnic diversity documented. Individualization, simplicity, time commitment, and manner of administration were all noted by PlwMS as influencing PRO usability.
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the nurse employed in a preschool agency is planning a staff education program to prevent the spread of an intestinal parasitical disease
To prevent the spread of an intestinal parasitical disease staff will practice standard precautions when changing diapers and assisting children with toileting.
What is the most common intestinal parasite?Giardia is arguably the most prevalent parasite infection in humans worldwide, while pin-worm is the most prevalent in the US. Giardiasis is thought to affect more than 2.5 million people annually, according to estimates made by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) between 1992 and 1997.
What is a parasite in the intestines?One of the most common types of intestinal parasites in humans are intestinal worms, commonly referred to as parasitic worms. Although several varieties can be found in the United States, they are most frequently seen in subtropical and tropical areas. The majority of intestinal worm infections only result in little illness and are manageable with medicine.
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During childhood, an example of _______ occurs when the liver increases in size as hepatocytes undergo cell division.
Answer:
Hyperplasia
Explanation:
Brainliest?
the nurse is caring for a client who is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious outside in hot weather. dehydration is suspected. baseline lab work including a urine specific gravity is ordered. which relation between the client’s symptoms and urine specific gravity is anticipated?
The relation between the client’s symptoms and urine specific gravity that can be anticipated is that the specific gravity will be high.
When fluid intake is typical, what should the urine’s specific gravity be?The normal range for any urine specific gravity is from 1.005 to 1.030.
Urinary retention is more likely to occur in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a disorder in which the prostate gland is enlarged. Urine cannot exit the bladder as a result of the prostate’s growth pressing against the urethra.
Which value does the nurse consider to be the most accurate clinical indicator of renal function in men over 50 who have BPH?GFR. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is the sum of the filtration rates of the working nephrons in the body.
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A drug will be measured for five commonly known effects across three doses. how many dose-effect curves will be produced during this research?
The correct answer is 5. A total of five dose-effect curves will be produced in this research. Combination therapies take advantage of the potential for increased efficacy, decreased toxicity, and reduced drug resistance development.
As a result of these benefits, combination therapies have become the norm for the treatment of many diseases and are still seen as a promising option when there are indications of unmet medical needs. Studying the interactions between medications is important in this situation to show that the combination is significantly better than the individual treatments.
The function of potency is the quantity of a medicine needed to have an effect. The utmost degree of an effect or response that a medicine is capable of producing is known as its efficacy. Clinical efficacy should only be assessed within the patient population using suitable outcome measures, despite the fact that potency might be a useful preclinical sign of a drug's therapeutic potential.
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while caring for a pregnant patient, the nurse observes edema in the feet and ankles. which nursing interventions would be most beneficial for the patient
As the nurse observes edema in the feet and ankles of the pregnant patient most beneficial nursing intervention for the patient would be :
Circulatory congestion
Patients who are pregnant may experience edema in the feet and ankles as a result of circulatory congestion. The patient should be advised to get adequate rest to prevent pain and reduce the swelling.
Placing the legs in an elevated position helps to avoid the accumulation of fluids in the lower limbs and prevents edema in the feet and the ankles. Therefore, the nurse should suggest the patient to raise the legs while sitting.
Why Do Women's Hands, Feet, and Ankles Swell During Pregnancy?
In order to meet the needs of the growing baby, a woman's body produces 50% more biological fluids during pregnancy, which might result in swelling. About 25% of a woman's weight increase during pregnancy is brought on by excessive fluid intake. And during this period, you can get edema or regular swelling in your feet, ankles, and legs.
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the nurse is performing bilateral comparison of pulse sites for strength and quality instead of counting the beats per minute. which pulse locations will the nurse palpate to gather this assessment data? select all that apply.
Femoral, Dorsalis pedis, Popliteal and Posterior tibial are the patient's pulse locations will the nurse palpate to obtain the evaluation information.
What is pulse?The heartbeat brought on by a bodily artery regularly expanding as blood passes through it Check the pulse on your wrist.
Instead than counting the beats per minute, the nurse compares the strength and quality of the two pulse sites bilaterally. To collect this information for the assessment, where on the patient's pulse will the nurse palpate?Femoral: Heart rate measured by the femoral artery pulse, which is felt in the groin. Pulse is the term used to describe the rate at which the heart beats; it is typically tested to provide a fast assessment of a person's health.
Dorsalis pedis: On the dorsum of the foot, in the first intermetatarsal gap, directly lateral to the great toe's extensor tendon, the dorsalis pedis pulse can be felt. Behind and beneath the medial malleolus, one can feel the posterior tibial pulse.
Popliteal: To transport blood to the lower portion of your leg, they begin in the middle of your thighs and travel behind your knees. By placing your fingers on the back of your knee, above the popliteal artery, you or a medical professional can feel your popliteal pulse.
Posterior tibial: A pulse that can be felt above the posterior tibial artery on the inside of the ankle, just behind the ankle bone.
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the concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing
The concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing metaparadigm.
What is the nursing metaparadigm?The nursing metaparadigm can be defined as all the body of scientific information in which the nursing profession is based, which involves patient, environment, and health.
In conclusion, 'the concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing metaparadigm.
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• john snow, an english physician, has observed that disease is becoming more prevalent in a local neighborhood and he wants to know why. he collects information about the local people, including how many family members contracted the disease and where they live. john discovers that the disease is most common in homes located closest to the town’s water pump. john contrives an explanation: that the illness is waterborne and people are contracting the disease from water they retrieve from the town’s water pump. after petitioning the authorities, the handle at the pump is removed.
This question is incomplete because you are missing an option. The missing section is:
What geographical principle explains the importance of Snow's research?
A. When a city removes natural resources from its landscape, those resources become insignificant.
B. In the area of urban land use, there is also an important relationship between nature and society.
C. Once water enters a city land use area, it is no longer considered a natural resource.
D. The prosperity of a society is determined by environmental factors such as the availability of natural resources.
e Societies leave cultural imprints on the land, such as the patterns of roads and water systems.
The answer to this question is:
B. There is also an important relationship between nature and society in the area of urban land use.
One of the principles of geography is that human societies are closely related to geographic elements, including the body's water. This principle is illustrated in the examples given as it demonstrates the dependence of human societies on natural bodies of water for their water supply. In addition, changes in water sources or water systems, including contamination by bacteria such as cholera, affect human societies through increased mortality and morbidity. This means that there is a relationship between nature and society even in rural areas with altered nature and geographic factors (option B.).
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several leading causes of death in the united states are considered diseases, which are health problems that typically take many years to develop and have complex causes.
Several leading causes of death in the united states are considered Chronic diseases, which are health problems that typically take many years to develop and have complex causes.
What is a Chronic disease ?A disease or condition that usually lasts for 3 months or longer and may get worse over time. Chronic diseases tend to occur in older adults and can usually be controlled but not cured. The most common types of chronic disease are cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and arthritis.
Most chronic diseases are caused by key risk behaviours: Tobacco use and exposure to secondhand smoke. Poor nutrition, including diets high in sodium and saturated fats and low in fruits and vegetables. Physical inactivity.Learn more about Chronic disease here:
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the nurse suspects that an adolescent has anorexia nervosa. which characteristics may have been observed
The nurse suspects that an adolescent has anorexia nervosa the characteristics may have been observed.
Denying illnessmissing food maintaining rigid body controlWhat is anorexia nervosa?Anorexia is characterized by a distorted perception of oneself and an unfounded fear of being overweight. Fasting or increased exertion in an attempt to maintain a normal weight are symptoms. Medical therapy may be required to return to normal weight. Talk therapy can assist with self-esteem and behavioral improvements.
What are the many types of anorexia nervosa?Anorexia nervosa is classified into two subtypes: restricting and non-restricting. Binge-eating/purging type, where there are periods of food consumption that are compensated for by self-induced vomiting, cathartic or diuretic misuse, and/or excessive activity.
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during an interview, the nurse states, "you mentioned shortness of breath. tell me more about that." which verbal skill is used with this statement?
During an interview, the nurse states, you mentioned shortness of breath. tell me more about that it is an open ended question.
what is open ended question ?Open-ended questions are unstructured form of questions which are free-form inquiries and permit respondents in plain-text style, it allow them to express the full knowledge, emotion, and comprehension.
There are more than one possible answers to this type of open end question, it allows the person to delve deeply into the respondent's answers and glean important information about the topic.
It is just opposite to a closed-ended question and it limits and narrows survey responses, it can be used to elicit more extensive information, free-form survey questions which allow respondents to answer in open text format
In open end question, the answer is based on the complete knowledge, feeling, and understanding which means that the response to this question is not limited to a set of options.
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5. brent’s phenytoin sodium level is 4 mcg/ml. discuss this level and what actions the nurse should take as a result of this information.
The therapy of chronic phenytoin toxicity affects supporting care. Multiple-dose activated charcoal may assist improve elimination.
What are phenytoin levels?More over 30 g/mL of phenytoin is regarded as toxic. A lethal concentration is one that exceeds 100 g/mL. 1-2.5 g/mL is the standard range for free phenytoin. Free phenytoin levels may be more accurate than total phenytoin levels in patients with renal failure and hypoalbuminemia.Because phenytoin blood levels must be kept within a specific therapeutic range, phenytoin blood tests is required. The affected person may experience seizures if the levels are too low, and phenytoin poisoning symptoms may appear if the levels are too high. Depending on the dose, the neurotoxic consequences might range from moderate nystagmus to ataxia, slurred speech, vomiting, lethargy, and eventually death. Ironically, phenytoin can cause seizures when present in very high doses.To learn more about phenytoin level, refer to:
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if the patient who has a fever and a blood-tinged productive cough states he has an infectious disease, what disease does he most likely have?
Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (TB). Although TB germs typically assault the lungs, they can also affect the kidney, spine, and brain. Not every person who contracts TB germs gets ill. Latent TB infection (LTBI) and TB disease are consequently two TB-related diseases. TB disease can be lethal if it is not adequately treated.
Infections of tuberculosis, once uncommon in wealthy nations, started rising in 1985, in part due to the appearance of HIV, the virus that causes AIDS. HIV impairs the immune system, making it incapable of warding off TB pathogens. In the United States, tuberculosis started to decline once more in 1993 as a result of more effective control initiatives. But it still raises questions.
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a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25 percent of total body weight. which subjective client response should the nurse understand is an example of cognitive distortions?
D: The nurse diagnoses Imbalanced Nutrition i.e., Less Than Body Requirements is supported by the patient’s medical history and test findings.
There are no records indicating that the patient produces vomiting, uses laxatives, or overexercises.
In place of having a high potassium level, the patient has hypokalemia.
Physical evidence of anorexia may include:Extreme weight loss or failure to gain weight as expected during growth.
A thin frame.
Excessive blood counts.
Fatigue.
Insomnia.
Fainting or dizziness
Finger discoloration that is bluish.
Which of the following signs of binge eating disorder would be present in a patient?Eating quickly when having a binge. Eating until you’re too full to be comfortable.
Eating alone or covertly a lot. Feeling down about your eating or disgusted, embarrassed, guilty, or upset.
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Complete Question
A client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of total body weight. Which subjective client response would the nurse assess to support this medical diagnosis?
A. "I do not use any laxatives or diuretics to lose weight."
B. "I am losing lots of hair. It's coming out in handfuls."
C. "I know that I am thin, but I refuse to be fat!"
D. "I don't know why people are worried. I need to lose this weight."
a nurse is caring for a client who has a fungal infection and has a new prescription for amphotericin b. which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?
BUN 55/mg/dL is the laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication.
The quantity of urea nitrogen in your blood is determined by a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test. When your liver breaks down protein, urea nitrogen is produced as a waste product. Your blood carries it, your kidneys filter it out, and your urine excretes it from your body.
Your liver may not properly break down proteins if it isn't in good shape. Additionally, unhealthy kidneys may be unable to filter urea as well. Larger levels of urea nitrogen may develop in your body as a result of either of these issues.
BUN levels enable your doctor to assess how effectively your kidneys are functioning. To assist identify a kidney problem, the test may be done in conjunction with other parameters.
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A client with a history of osteoarthritis is admitted to the rehabilitation unit after hospitalization for a hip fracture. which plan by the multidisciplinary team best optimizes client outcomes?
Including the client in developing a care plan that works towards meeting discharge goals.
What is osteoarthritis ?The destruction of cartilage, a rubbery substance that reduces friction in your joints, is the primary cause of osteoarthritis. The spine, fingers, thumbs, hips, knees, or big toes are the most common places for it to occur, yet it can develop in any joint. Older persons are more likely to get osteoarthritis.
When the smooth cartilage joint surface deteriorates, osteoarthritis develops. Osteoarthritis frequently starts in a single joint. Due to the autoimmune nature of rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system misbehaves and targets the body rather than foreign invaders.Learn more about Osteoarthritis here:
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Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?.
The cranial nerves Oculomotor, Facial, Glossopharyngeal, and Vagus are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
The oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are cranial nerves that are involved in the parasympathetic nervous system. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus for the oculomotor nerve, superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei for the facial nerve, inferior salivatory nucleus for the glossopharyngeal nerve, the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve, as well as the nucleus ambiguus for the vagus nerve, are the nuclei specifically related to these.
The parasympathetic nervous system's preganglionic fibers may be located here. Additionally, the second, third, and fourth sacral segments' respective sacral parasympathetic nuclei are all engaged.
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penicillin v (potassium), 75 mg orally every 8 hours, is prescribed for a child with a respiratory infection. the medication label reads penicillin v, 125 mg per 5 ml. the nurse has determined that the dosage prescribed is safe for the child. the nurse prepares to administer how many milliliters per dose to the child? fill in the blank.
The nurse prepares to administer 3 milliliters per dose to the child.
The dose recommended in the medical prescription might not be accessible in the actual world. Inderal 10-mg tablets, not the 15-mg tablets indicated, may be available at the hospital. The nurse calculates the appropriate dosage to administer to the patient based on the medication order and the dose that is on hand. The formula method uses the following formula to determine the appropriate dose.
Formula for Desired Dose
[tex]\frac{D}{H} .V= A[/tex]
D = The desired dosage
H = Have you got
V = tablets or liquid
A is the estimated dosage to be given to the patient.
Putting in the values we get,
75 / 125 × 5 = 3 mL is the desired dose.
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triple vs dual inhaler therapy and asthma outcomes in moderate to severe asthma a systematic review and meta-analysis
When compared to dual therapy, triple therapy was significantly linked with fewer severe asthma exacerbations and small improvements in asthma control in children and adults with moderate to severe asthma. There were no significant differences in life quality of life or mortality.
What causes asthma and how is it treated?Exposure to numerous irritants and chemicals that cause allergies (allergens) can cause asthma symptoms. Asthma triggers vary from person to person and can include: airborne allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold spores, pet dander, or cockroach excrement particles.
Who is at risk of developing asthma?Asthmatics are more common in individuals who grew up or reside in cities. Overweight or obese children and adults are more likely to develop asthma. Although the causes are unknown, some doctors believe that excess weight causes low-grade systemic inflammation.
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Two recommended resources designed to assist in interpreting signs and symptoms are the _____ online medical library and the american academy of family physicians website.
a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to treat an uncomplicated uti. which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
What is ciprofloxacin?Fluoroquinolone (flor-o-KWIN-o-lone) antibiotic ciprofloxacin is used to treat several bacterial illnesses. People who have been exposed to anthrax or some forms of plague are also treated with it. The use of ciprofloxacin extended-release is only permitted in adults.
Fluoroquinolone drugs have potentially irreversible, significant, or debilitating adverse effects. Only infections that cannot be cured with a less dangerous antibiotic should be treated with ciprofloxacin.
Therefore, monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
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clinical severity, rather than body temperature, during the rewarming phase of therapeutic hypothermia affect quantitative eeg in neonates with hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy.
The claim that quantitative EEG in newborns with hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy is affected by clinical severity rather than body temperature during the rewarming phase of therapeutic hypothermia is true.
What is EEG?An EEG is a test that looks for irregularities in your brain's electrical activity or brain waves. An EEG is primarily used to identify and research epilepsy, a disorder that results in recurrent seizures. Your doctor will use an EEG to determine the type of epilepsy you have, what might be causing your seizures, and the best course of treatment for you. When diagnosing brain illnesses, particularly epilepsy or another seizure disorder, an EEG can identify variations in brain activity. Brain tumors may be detected or treated with an EEG. The EEG has been in use for a long time and is regarded as safe. The examination is painless. Activity is captured by the electrodes. They don't cause any sensation at all.The complete question is:
clinical severity, rather than body temperature, during the rewarming phase of therapeutic hypothermia affect quantitative eeg in neonates with hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy. true/false
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the nurse places a penny in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. what term would the nurse ise to descirbe this feeling quizlet
According to the given statement the nurse would define this finding as an astereognosis.
The correct option is B..
What is Astereognosis?Astereognosis refers to both the inability to different sizes and shapes by touch and the failure to recognize objects by touch. These are the apperceptive and associative varieties of agnosia. The associative form is known as tactile agnosia.
How often is astereognosis diagnosed?After brain damage, your doctor will usually test for astereognosis. It could be one of a set of tests to assist your doctor to understand how the impairment is affecting your abilities. Tactile object recognition The most popular exam is known as the tactile object recognition test, TOR.
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I understand that the question you are looking for is:
The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding?
a. Extinction
b. Astereognosis
c. Graphesthesia
d. Tactile discrimination
gearan ec, fox mk. updated nutrition standards have significantly improved the nutritional quality of school lunches and breakfasts. j acad nutr diet. 2020 mar;120(3):363-370. doi: 10.1016/j.jand.2019.10.022. epub 2020 jan 13. pmid: 31948795.
The updated nutrition standards have definitely significantly improved the nutritional quality of school lunches and breakfasts. This is a correct statement.
What are nutrition standards?The purpose of nutrition guidelines and standards (NGS) is to increase the adequacy of foods and meals served at schools while also improving the nutritional quality and quantity of those foods.
NGS goes beyond establishing nutrient-based targets and necessitates particular procedures in order to be successful, including the gathering and analysis of data on individual food consumption, knowledge of the value chain and available procurement options, and recognition of local and regional consumption patterns, among others.
Therefore, the given statement is correct.
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i nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 500 mg im to a client. the nurse reconstitutes a 500 mg vial of cefazolin powder to obtain a final concentration of cefazolin 330 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 1.51ml (rounding off 2 ml) of cefazolin in the client.
What is cefazolin?A first-generation cephalosporin antibiotic called cefazolin, often referred to as cefazoline and cephazolin, is used to treat a variety of bacterial infections. In particular, it is used to treat biliary tract infections, endocarditis, pneumonia, cellulitis, and urinary tract infections. Before surgery and during childbirth, it is also used to prevent group B streptococcal infection. Usually, it is injected into a muscle or vein.
The most typical adverse responses are hives, yeast infections, and allergic reactions. In those who have previously experienced anaphylaxis to penicillin, it is not advised. Use during pregnancy and breast-feeding is generally safe. The first-generation cephalosporin class of drugs, including cefazolin, work by interfering with the cell walls of bacteria.
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