The most important intervention for the patient after blood and fluid resuscitation has been instituted is maintaining central venous pressure.
So, the correct answer is D.
Central venous pressure (CVP) is the blood pressure within the thoracic vena cava or, more generally, the right atrium of the heart. CVP reflects the amount of blood that is being returned to the heart and the ability of the heart to pump the blood out again, as well as the capacity of the vascular system to accommodate blood.
A central venous catheter (CVC) is typically used to assess CVP. By providing an assessment of the adequacy of intravascular volume, cardiac function, and systemic perfusion, CVP measurement is a valuable component of the monitoring of hemodynamically unstable patients. Hence, maintaining central venous pressure is the most important intervention for the patient after blood and fluid resuscitation has been instituted.
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the nurse is monitoring for bleeding in a child after surgery to remove a brain tumor. the nurse checks the head dressing for the presence of blood and notes a colorless drainage on the back of the dressing. which nursing action is appropriate?
In this situation, the nursing action that is appropriate is to monitor the child closely for any changes and report any significant changes to the surgeon.
Bleeding: It is a health condition in which an individual loses blood from their blood vessels or heart. The amount of bleeding can range from a small spot on the skin to extreme blood loss in the body.Brain tumor: It is a mass or growth of abnormal cells in the brain. Tumors can damage vital brain tissues and nerves. Depending on the location of the tumor, it can cause various symptoms and health complications. Colorless damage: It is damage that occurs in the form of bruising on the skin. It is a common type of injury that occurs when small blood vessels, such as capillaries, are damaged or broken due to trauma or injury. It is caused by bleeding that occurs under the skin.The nurse should monitor the child for any changes after the surgery, and report any significant changes to the surgeon. This would include any changes in the child's vital signs, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, as well as any signs of bleeding, such as an increase in the amount of drainage from the head dressing. If the bleeding continues or gets worse, the surgeon may need to take additional measures to stop the bleeding, such as performing a second surgery to remove any remaining tumor or repairing any damage that may have occurred during the first surgery.
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a nurse is providing care for a diverse group of clients on a medical floor. which tasks may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (uap)? select all that apply.
A nurse is providing care for a diverse group of clients on a medical floor. Tasks that a nurse obtaining patient vital signs and reporting them to the nurse. Providing comfort to patients and providing emotional support to them.
Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as bathing, feeding, and dressing patients.
Arranging medical equipment, preparing beds and setting up rooms
Providing an explanation to patients about the activities they perform and informing the nurse of any new developments. During the delegation of tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), a nurse should monitor the work of the UAP closely. The nurse should assess the skill level of the UAP, ensure that the tasks are in the UAP's scope of practice, and provide the UAP with clear instructions about the task.
Therefore, the following tasks may a nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP): Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as bathing, feeding, and dressing patients, arranging medical equipment, preparing beds and setting up rooms, obtaining patient vital signs and reporting them to the nurse.
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the nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with long qt syndrome (lqts). when planning this client's care, the nurse should recognize what implication of the diagnosis?
The nurse should recognize the following implications of the diagnosis of long QT syndrome (LQTS) when planning care for a client who has just been diagnosed with it:
i) There is an increased risk of a person with LQTS developing a life-threatening arrhythmia, particularly torsades de pointes.
ii) There is an increased risk of sudden death due to cardiac arrest.
iii) Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities can be seen, but a normal ECG does not rule out LQTS.
iv) The severity of symptoms can vary widely, ranging from asymptomatic individuals to those with repeated episodes of fainting, life-threatening arrhythmias, and sudden death.
As a result, it is critical to identify those who are at greatest risk of an event and to consider therapy for patients with long qt syndrome.
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the nurse is encouraging a client to cough and deep breathe, as well as use the incentive spirometer. she also performs chest physiotherapy twice a day. what is the purpose of these interventions?
The purpose of the interventions such as coughing and deep breathing, using the incentive spirometer and performing chest physiotherapy twice a day are to improve lung function and prevent complications related to the respiratory system.
Coughing and deep breathing, incentive spirometer and chest physiotherapy are interventions used to improve lung function. Patients who have undergone surgical procedures or who are bedridden or immobile for long periods of time are at risk of respiratory complications such as pneumonia or atelectasis.
The use of the incentive spirometer can help the client take deep breaths and cough, and can help in lung function improvement.
Chest physiotherapy is a set of interventions that help the body get rid of mucus and is recommended for patients with respiratory infections or those who are experiencing difficulty breathing.
The nurse encourages the client to cough and deep breathe, use the incentive spirometer, and perform chest physiotherapy twice a day in order to help prevent these complications. These interventions may also help reduce the likelihood of postoperative pneumonia or respiratory complications in some patients.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with vitamin b12 deficiency. when taking the client's history, which symptoms would the nurse expect the client to report? select all that apply.
When taking a client's history with a diagnosis of Vitamin B12 deficiency, the nurse would expect the client to report symptoms of fatigue, lightheadedness, shortness of breath, and tingling in the extremities.
They may also report difficulty concentrating, memory problems, depression, and changes in vision. The nurse should also ask about appetite, as Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause anorexia, or decreased appetite.
Additionally, the client may report experiencing constipation, nausea, and a metallic taste in their mouth. All of these symptoms may be a result of Vitamin B12 deficiency and should be reported to the nurse.
It is important that the nurse takes an accurate and thorough medical history in order to provide the client with the most effective and appropriate care.
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which of the following is not a benefit of moderate alcohol intake? increased hdl-cholesterol levels reduced risk of age-related dementia decreased risk of breast cancer improved appetite in the elderly
Among the given options, "improved appetite in the elderly" is not a benefit of moderate alcohol intake.
A moderate amount of alcohol intake is up to one drink per day for women and up to two drinks per day for men. This level of drinking is considered healthy for most adults. Moderate alcohol intake comes with several benefits such as increased HDL-cholesterol levels, decreased risk of age-related dementia, and reduced risk of breast cancer. Improved appetite in the elderly, however, is not a benefit of moderate alcohol intake. Instead, it may be the result of malnourishment, which can cause elderly people to have a reduced sense of hunger.
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an 89-year-old client is admitted to a nursing home and the nurse is reviewing the client's medical history and medications. the client was diagnosed with depression 4 months ago. which medication prescription does the nurse question?
The nurse would question the prescription of an antidepressant medication that has anticholinergic side effects for an 89-year-old client who was diagnosed with depression four months ago.
It is because anticholinergic medications are contraindicated in older people because they can cause cognitive impairments and increased risk of falls. Anticholinergic drugs cause dryness of the mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and confusion. These side effects are due to the fact that anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a chemical that helps to transmit nerve signals.The older adult population is more susceptible to these side effects because they may have decreased liver and kidney function, decreased clearance of drugs, and altered drug absorption. Therefore, anticholinergic drugs are not recommended for older adults suffering from depression.
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What is 1 oz of salt plus 2 oz of salt
Answer: 3 oz of salt
Explanation: One plus two equals three
.A nurse finds an elderly woman helpless and alone after the unlicensed caretaker quit without notifying the agency. The nurse is then fired for reporting the caretaker for possible abuse and neglect. Does the nurse have protection from negative employment action for reporting the above incident to the appropriate authorities?
Answer: It depends
Explanation:
The nurse may be protected, but only if the nurse can prove that the client was in an unsafe situation.
the nurse cares for a patient with chronic pain. a regular dose of analgesi medication is ineffective in reducing the patient's pain. what does the nurse expect is the cause for the patient's response?
The nurse expects that the cause for the patient's response is increased tolerance to the regular dose of analgesic medication.
The given scenario is based on chronic pain that a patient is experiencing. The patient is taking a regular dose of analgesic medication but this is not effective in reducing the patient's pain. Here, the nurse may suspect that the reason for the patient's response is an increased tolerance to the regular dose of analgesic medication. Tolerance to medication can occur when the patient is taking a regular dose of medication for an extended period. In this scenario, the patient's body becomes used to the medication and begins to develop a tolerance. This can happen with many different types of medication, including analgesic medication. When a patient's body becomes tolerant of a medication, it can require a higher dose to achieve the same effect.
This means that the regular dose of analgesic medication is no longer enough to provide relief for the patient. Hence, the nurse should consult with the physician to adjust the dose or to try a different medication.
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a woman has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis and asks the nurse when it would be safe to resume sexual activity. how should the nurse respond?
The nurse should tell her to refrain from sexual activity until she and her sexual partner(s) have completed treatment and no longer have symptoms of trichomoniasis.
Trichomoniasis is an infection caused by a parasite that is commonly transmitted by sexual activity. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI).
If she is on medication, the nurse should inform her of the medication's importance and tell her to follow the doctor's instructions carefully to halt the reoccurrence of disease.
It's also a good idea for people who have been diagnosed with trichomoniasis to be tested for other STIs because they are more likely to contract them.
Using condoms will help to lower the risk of contracting or spreading sexually transmitted infections such as trichomoniasis.
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which signs would the nurse recognize as indicative of missed abortion? select all that apply. vaginal bleeding products of conception partially expelled decrease in uterine size absent fetal heart rate subsiding nausea absence of breast tenderness
The signs a nurse would recognize are vaginal bleeding, products of conception partially expelled, decrease in uterine size, absent fetal heart rate.
Missed abortion refers to a pregnancy that has failed and is no longer progressing, but there have been no signs or symptoms of miscarriage such as vaginal bleeding or cramping.
Signs that a nurse would recognize as indicative of missed abortion are as follows:
Vaginal bleeding, products of conception partially expelled, decrease in uterine size and absent fetal heart rate.
Missed abortion symptoms can be subtle or severe. A missed abortion can be identified on a routine prenatal ultrasound or after a heart rate check. During a pelvic exam, the cervix may remain closed, and there may be no visible indication of a miscarriage. The cervix may also be open or dilated, with the placenta and other tissues coming out through the vagina.
Signs that a woman has had a missed abortion may include bleeding, which can range from spotting to heavy bleeding. In most instances, there is little or no pain, and no cramping. In some cases, the bleeding may continue for several days or weeks.
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medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes can decrease the absorption of: group of answer choices vitamin b12. vitamin d. protein. vitamin c.
The medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes can decrease the absorption of Vitamin B12.
Vitamin B12 is a nutrient found in a variety of foods that helps keep the body’s nerve and blood cells healthy and helps make DNA, so it's important to get enough of it. Without enough Vitamin B12, you can have anemia, fatigue, and nerve damage. Heartburn is a painful burning sensation in the chest or throat that occurs when stomach acid leaks into the esophagus. Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is a digestive disorder in which stomach acid or bile irritates the food pipe lining. Diabetes is a disease that affects your blood sugar levels. This condition occurs when your body is unable to produce enough insulin or uses it inefficiently, causing blood sugar levels to rise.
Decreased absorption of vitamin B12 means that the body is not receiving enough vitamin B12 from the diet. When there is a vitamin B12 deficiency, the human body may experience several symptoms, including muscle weakness, tingling in the arms and legs, fatigue, anemia, and depression. . Medications for heartburn, gastroesophageal reflux, and diabetes contain proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), which suppress the production of stomach acid. PPIs can lead to a decrease in vitamin B12 absorption because it requires stomach acid to absorb vitamin B12.
Hence , PPIs prevent the stomach from producing enough stomach acid, which causes vitamin B12 absorption to decline. Individuals who take PPIs for an extended period of time are more likely to experience a vitamin B12 deficiency.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. When performing the allen test, after applying pressure until the hand loses its pink tone, you should release pressure from the ___ artery
Answer:
radial
Explanation:
The Allen test is a first-line standard test used to assess the arterial blood supply of the hand. This test is performed whenever intravascular access to the radial artery is planned or for selecting patients for radial artery harvesting, such as for coronary artery bypass grafting or for forearm flap elevation.
Answer:
Radial
Explanation:
The original Allen test is performed by asking the patient to elevate both arms above the head for thirty seconds in order to exsanguinate the hands. Next, the patient squeezes their hands into tight fists, and the examiner occludes the radial artery simultaneously on both hands.
the fetus of a mother in active labor continues to have late decelerations with each contraction. the obstetric provider determines a cesarean birth is necessary. the nurse prepares the mother for the emergency surgery. when should the nurse stop external fetal monitoring?
In the scenario when the fetus of a mother in active labor continues to have late decelerations with each contraction and the obstetric provider determines a cesarean birth is necessary, the nurse should stop external fetal monitoring after the mother has been taken to the operating room.
Active labor: It refers to the stage of labor when the cervix has dilated to 3-4 centimeters and contractions are occurring every five minutes or less. It is the phase of childbirth when the baby descends into the birth canal and moves into the pelvis.Cesarean birth: It is a surgical procedure in which a baby is delivered through incisions made in the abdomen and uterus. Cesarean birth is also known as C-section delivery. This procedure is typically used in situations where the mother or the baby is at risk during vaginal delivery.External fetal monitoring: It is a method used to assess fetal well-being during labor. It involves the placement of two monitors on the mother's abdomen: one to measure contractions and the other to measure the baby's heart rate. This method can help identify fetal distress or other problems during labor.Contraction: It is a tightening of the uterus that occurs during labor. The contractions help push the baby through the birth canal and out of the body. During labor, contractions become more frequent and intense, helping the cervix to open and prepare for delivery.To learn more about cesarean birth: https://brainly.com/question/5105719
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what should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient who has acute low back pain and muscle spasams
A patient with severe low back pain and muscular spasms is given the following instruction by the nurse: When relaxing in bed, keep the legs bent and the head slightly lifted.
What is the primary reason behind muscle spasms?Muscle spasms, often known as cramps, happen when your muscle contracts abruptly and uncontrollably yet is unable to release. Any of your muscles may be impacted by them, which are extremely typical. They can involve a single muscle, a group of muscles, or both. Lack of nutrients, muscular tension, misuse of the muscle, increased strain on blood flow, and a number of underlying medical disorders are just a few of the factors that can trigger muscle spasms.The majority of the time, muscle spasms go away on their own. They might stop after a few seconds or even minutes, but they typically do not require medical attention. Muscle cramps brought on by dehydration can be relieved by drinking lots of water.To learn more about muscular spasms, refer to:
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a nurse is providing health teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old child who has been diagnosed with benign febrile seizures. what is the most important information for the nurse to give the parents about this disorder?
The most important information for the nurse to give the parents about this disorder is that benign febrile seizures are relatively common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years and are not life-threatening.
The seizures are usually brief and involve a full-body convulsion or a twitching of the arms and legs lasting up to 15 minutes. They are often caused by a sudden rise in body temperature due to a fever, and can be accompanied by a change in consciousness or a loss of consciousness.
It is important to note that most children do not have any long-term effects from these seizures, but it is still important to monitor the child and seek medical attention if the seizures become more frequent or last longer than 15 minutes.
The nurse should also provide the parents with an action plan for what to do if the child has a seizure, such as ensuring the child is in a safe environment, recording the duration of the seizure, and ensuring the child receives medical attention.
Lastly, the nurse should explain the importance of keeping the child's fever under control by regularly giving fever-reducing medications and encouraging the child to drink plenty of
fluids
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Darla Huntley, RMA, works in a pulmonology practice. She has been instructed to schedule Betty Robinson for a spirometry within one week. Ms. Robinson has never had one before. After the procedure is scheduled, what information should Darla provide Ms. Robinson to ensure that she is prepared on the day of her test? Under what health-related circumstances would Darla need to reschedule the test for Ms. Robinson? How many maneuvers must be completed for Ms. Robinson's PFT to be considered successful on the day of her testing?
Answer:
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that spirometry is a simple test for figuring out how well the lungs work. During the test, the patient will be asked to take a deep breath and then blow as hard as they can into a mouthpiece connected to a spirometer. The spirometer will measure how much air the patient can blow out of their lungs and how fast they can do it.
Advice on medication: Darla should tell Ms. Robinson that she shouldn't use any bronchodilator inhalers, like albuterol, for four to six hours before the test.
Darla should tell Ms. Robinson when to expect her at the test and how long the test is likely to last.
Wear clothes that are comfortable. Darla should tell Ms. Robinson to wear clothes that are comfortable and won't make it hard for her to breathe.
Darla might have to reschedule Ms. Robinson's test if something goes wrong with her health. For example, if Ms. Robinson has recently had chest surgery, a heart attack, or a stroke, Darla may need to reschedule the test to avoid any possible health risks.
For Ms. Robinson's spirometry test to be successful, she must do at least three things that give acceptable and repeatable results. If Ms. Robinson can't do three maneuvers, Darla may have to reschedule the test to make sure the results are correct.
Major source:
American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society. (2005). ATS/ERS statement on respiratory muscle testing. American Journal of Respiratory and Critical Care Medicine, 171(8), 866-878. doi: 10.1164/rccm.200401-044STwhat are some needs medical users might need during a public health crisis, medical emergency or during routine communication
Medical users, such as healthcare professionals and patients, may have different needs during a public health crisis, medical emergency, or routine communication.
What are the medical needs?Here are some examples:
During a public health crisis:
Access to accurate and up-to-date information about the crisis and how to respond to it
Personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect themselves and others from infection
Clear communication channels to coordinate responses and share information with other healthcare providers
Adequate staffing levels and resources to meet the increased demand for medical services
Mental health support to cope with the stress and emotional toll of the crisis
During a medical emergency:
Immediate access to medical care and emergency services
Accurate and timely communication between healthcare providers and emergency responders
Access to necessary medical equipment and supplies to stabilize and treat the patient
Support for the patient's family and loved ones during the emergency and in its aftermath
During routine communication:
Clear and effective communication between healthcare providers and patients to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment
Access to medical records and information to inform treatment decisions
Support for patients with disabilities or language barriers to ensure equal access to medical care and information
Patient education and counseling to promote healthy behaviors and prevent illness or injury.
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25. A patient is admitted to your unit with a
15-year history of COPD. The nurses
assessment should include monitoring for:
Papa, K. (2021). Essential In-services for Long-
term Care (2021st ed.). HCPro, a divison of
Simplify Compliance LLC. (Original work
published 2021)
Accessory muscle use with breathing
O Chest pain
According to the research, the correct answer is option B. In a patient that is admitted to your unit with a 15-year history of COPD, the nurses assessment should include monitoring for chest pain.
What is COPD?It is a disease characterized by a non-reversible obstruction of the bronchi that affects the airways or lungs and is accompanied by coughing and respiratory distress.
In this sense, nursing care in hospitalization of patients with COPD is based on identifying the initial manifestations of respiratory infections, signs that the disease may be decompensated, such as the appearance of chest pain, especially rib pain and in some cases increased dyspnea, fatigue, color change.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the nursing staff in the hospitalization area, in the application of the care of patients with COPD, should monitor for chest pain.
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when a client has a recurrent, life-threatening arrhythmia originating either supraventricularly or ventricularly, ablation therapy is an option for treatment. what does ablation therapy do?
Patients with recurrent, life-threatening arrhythmias that originate either supraventricularly or ventricularly may benefit from ablation therapy.
An ablation procedure stops the irregular heartbeat and stops further episodes by destroying or removing the arrhythmia's source.
A catheter is used by the doctor to deliver radiofrequency energy or cold energy (cryoablation) to the specific region of the heart where the arrhythmia is occurring. This eliminates the arrhythmia by destroying the tissue that is generating the abnormal electrical signals.
This procedure is carried out in a hospital and typically lasts 2-4 hours.
Patients are observed for 24-48 hours following the procedure to make sure the arrhythmia has been treated and there are no complications.
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the caregivers of a child report that their child had a cold and complained of a sore throat. when interviewed further they report that the child has a high fever, is very anxious, and is breathing by sitting up and leaning forward with the mouth open and the tongue out. the nurse recognizes these symptoms as those seen with which disorder?
The nurse recognizes the symptoms of Diphtheria.
Diphtheria is a disorder whose symptoms include a high fever, a very anxious state, and breathing by sitting up and leaning forward with the mouth open and the tongue out.
Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is transmitted from person to person through respiratory droplets or direct contact with infected skin lesions. Diphtheria is a serious illness that can cause a variety of complications, including difficulty breathing, paralysis, heart failure, and death.
The disease can be prevented by immunization with diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine, which is recommended for all children under the age of 7, as well as for adolescents and adults who have not received it in the past. Treatment for diphtheria typically includes the administration of antitoxin, antibiotics, and supportive care.
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the oncology nurse is preparing to administer pembrolizumab, a targeted cancer treatment, to a client with non-small cell lung cancer (nsclc). what is the nurse's understanding of targeted cancer treatment?
The oncology nurse understands that targeted cancer treatment is a type of therapy that targets the specific genes, proteins, or the tissue environment that contributes to the cancer’s growth.
In the case of pembrolizumab, it is used to treat non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) by targeting the PD-1/PD-L1 proteins which helps to restore the body's immune system and fight the cancer. The nurse understands that targeted cancer treatment works by identifying and attacking specific cancer cells.
Targeted cancer treatment involves identifying and attacking specific cancer cells. Targeted cancer treatments are different from traditional chemotherapy because they are more focused on the cancer cells and less on the surrounding healthy cells.Therefore, targeted cancer therapies may be more effective than traditional chemotherapy in killing cancer cells while also causing fewer side effects than chemotherapy. Targeted cancer therapies can also be used in combination with other treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. This ensures that the cancer cells are destroyed while reducing the side effects of these treatments.
Hence, The oncology nurse is preparing to administer pembrolizumab, a targeted cancer treatment, to a client with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC).
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a client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. the nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. an esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. what would be the first activity performed by the nurse?
The first activity performed by the nurse should be to conduct an assessment of the patient's airway and respiratory function.
What is a foreign body? A foreign body is an object that gets into the body through unintended pathways. Most foreign bodies are swallowed or aspirated, but some can enter the body through open wounds, injected with needles or traumatic injuries.
Swallowing a foreign body is the most common form of foreign body ingestion and usually happens to children aged 1-3 years. A foreign body lodged in the throat can cause a severe obstruction of the airway, while a foreign body that has passed the throat can cause gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation.
The symptoms of foreign body ingestion depend on the location and type of foreign body. Children can experience gagging, drooling, difficulty swallowing, or irritability, while adults may experience choking, coughing, vomiting, or a sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat. In rare cases, foreign bodies can cause severe complications like infection, abscesses, or perforation.
After assessing the client's airway, the nurse should document the symptoms experienced by the client and report the incident to the physician. Once the physician has ordered an esophagogastroscopy with the removal of a foreign body, the nurse should prepare the client for the procedure and explain the process and risks involved.
The nurse should also monitor the client's vital signs and the respiratory status during the procedure and after the foreign body has been removed.
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the nurse instructs you to stay in the room with mr. lawson and check his vital signs while she calls the ambulance. mr. lawson tells you he is very thirsty and asks for a drink. you should:
The nurse instructs you to stay in the room with Mr. Lawson and check his vital signs while she calls the ambulance. Mr. Lawson tells you he is very thirsty and asks for a drink. You should: Provide him with small amounts of water.
Mr. Lawson should be provided with small amounts of water to quench his thirst. When administering water, be careful not to give Mr. Lawson large amounts since this may worsen his condition.
Ambulance personnel may also give Mr. Lawson small amounts of water during transportation. Make sure to provide the ambulance personnel with information concerning any fluid that you gave Mr. Lawson.
What are vital signs?The human body has several vital signs that are critical to monitor for both healthy and sick individuals. Vital signs refer to measurements of the body's primary physiological processes, including respiration, temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure.
Vital signs are useful indicators of general health status and are regularly monitored by medical personnel during regular checkups or when individuals are hospitalized.
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an intensive care unit nurse is caring for a client who suffered a myocardial infarction involving the anterior wall, and notes a change in the cardiac rhythm. the rhythm has a pr interval that does not change, but there are twice as many p waves as there are r waves. the nurse prepares for a temporary pacemaker insertion because the client has developed:
The nurse prepares for a temporary pacemaker insertion because the client has developed a type 2 second-degree AV block. The PR interval remains constant and there are twice as many P waves as there are R waves, which indicates a block in the AV node.
Second-degree, type 2 AV block is a cardiac arrhythmia that is a more progressed type of heart block, where the electrical impulses from the atria cannot consistently conduct to the ventricles. The PR interval is usually constant, but not all P waves are followed by QRS complexes. The QRS complexes are often twice the length of the conducted QRS complexes, and there may be pauses in conduction that become longer with time, leading to a complete heart block, and making the patient dependent on a pacemaker.
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The main function of the sympathetic innervation on the lungs is
Answer: Increases your breathing rate.
Explanation: The sympathetic system increases your breathing rate. It makes your bronchial tubes widen and the pulmonary blood vessels narrow.
the nurse is assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum. the woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area. the nurse notes a local area on one breast to be red and warm to touch. what should the nurse consider as the potential diagnosis?
When assessing the breast of a woman who is 1 month postpartum, a nurse should consider mastitis as the potential diagnosis if the woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area.
Mastitis is an inflammatory condition of the breast tissue that causes breast pain, swelling, warmth, and redness. It may occur during breastfeeding or as a result of infection or injury. It can lead to painful lumps, breast abscesses, and infection if not treated.
Mastitis is caused by the growth of bacteria in the milk ducts. Infections from Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, and Escherichia coli bacteria are common causes of mastitis. However, not all cases of mastitis are caused by infection. Milk stasis, plugged milk ducts, and cracked or sore nipples can also contribute to mastitis.
The symptoms of mastitis include the following:
Pain or burning sensation in the breastRedness and warmth in the breastSwelling of the breastTenderness to touchFlu-like symptoms (chills, fever, fatigue)Breast abscesses may develop if mastitis is not treated. A breast abscess is a pus-filled lump that can be quite painful. In addition, mastitis can lead to reduced milk supply if it causes blocked milk ducts. Hence, if a woman reports a painful area on one breast with a red area, a nurse should consider mastitis as the potential diagnosis.
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the nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory work before administering a large-volume enema. which laboratory result indicates that a nurse should confer with the health care provider before administering the enema?
As a nurse, it is necessary to review a client's laboratory work before administering a large-volume enema. An abnormal laboratory result may indicate that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before administering an enema.
An enema is a fluid injection into the lower colon via the rectum. This procedure is also known as an enema. It's usually a combination of water, laxatives, and other compounds. Enemas are often used to treat constipation and to clear the bowels before surgery.
The nurse should confirm with the healthcare provider before administering an enema if the client's laboratory results indicate an abnormality. The nurse should look for the following lab outcomes before administering an enema:
High electrolyte levelsLow electrolyte levelsBlood glucose levels elevatedLow blood glucose levelsLow platelet countHigh INR valuesLow INR valuesThere may be other laboratory results that the nurse should look for, depending on the client's medical history and the healthcare provider's orders. So, the answer to your question is not given since we do not know what laboratory reports the patient had.
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35. when lactulose 30 ml qid is ordered for a patient with advanced cirrhosis, the patient complains that it causes diarrhea. the nurse explains to the patient that it is still important to take the drug because the lactulose will a. promote fluid loss. b. prevent constipation. c. prevent gastrointestinal (gi) bleeding. d. improve nervous system function.
The nurse explains to the patient that it is still important to take the drug because the lactulose will prevent constipation. The correct answer is b.
What is lactulose?Lactulose is a synthetic, non-digestible sugar that is used in medicine to treat constipation and hepatic encephalopathy (a condition caused by high levels of toxins in the blood that affect brain function) in people with liver disease.
It functions by drawing water into the intestines, softening the stool and making it easier to pass through the colon. Lactulose is broken down into lactic acid and acetic acid in the colon, which acidifies the gut and decreases ammonia levels in the blood of people with liver disease.
What is cirrhosis? Cirrhosis is a late-stage liver disease that occurs when healthy liver tissue is replaced by scar tissue over a long period of time. This scar tissue can obstruct the flow of blood through the liver and impede its normal function, resulting in a variety of medical issues.
The condition is irreversible, but treatment can aid in the reduction of liver damage and progression. Cirrhosis is a late-stage liver disease that occurs when healthy liver tissue is replaced by scar tissue over a long period of time.
This scar tissue can obstruct the flow of blood through the liver and impede its normal function, resulting in a variety of medical issues. The condition is irreversible, but treatment can aid in the reduction of liver damage and progression.
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