Sally is at risk of having heart disease or stroke due to hypertension and low HDL levels.
What exactly is normal HDL?
More than 40 mg/dL of HDL cholesterol is ideal. This kind of fat improves your health by lowering your risk of heart disease. The higher the number, the lower your risk. It is believed that a level of sixty mg/dL or higher will protect against heart disease. High blood pressure typically develops gradually. It may be the result of unhealthy lifestyle decisions, like not getting enough regular exercise. Two medical conditions that can increase the likelihood of developing high blood pressure are diabetes and obesity. The so-called "good" cholesterol, HDL (high-density lipoprotein), removes cholesterol from the blood and carries it to the liver. The liver then eliminates it from the body.
Therefore, High HDL cholesterol levels can reduce your heart disease and stroke risk.
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a 100m sprinter would most likely contain which two skill-related components of fitness? question 2 options: speed and balance speed and reaction time speed and coordination speed and agility
Reaction time, speed, and power are the most important skill-related fitness components that every sprinter must excel at during the race.
Strength is defined as the ability to generate force (lifting heavy weights) speed: the ability to move quickly (sprinting) Endurance is the ability to withstand fatigue (running a marathon) Flexibility is the ability to achieve a wide range of motion at the joints (doing a split) Power is defined as the ability to exert maximum muscular contraction in an explosive burst of movements. Strength and speed are the two components of power. (For example, jumping or a sprint start) Aerobic endurance is also known as cardiovascular endurance. Marathon runners and distance cyclists need a high level of aerobic endurance to be able to work for an extended period of time during a race.
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an overweight woman participates in her first rugby match without proper training and conditioning. upon catching the opening kickoff, she awkwardly twists her right knee, screams in pain, and falls to the ground. the team manager notes her patella is dislocated, residing on the lateral side of her knee. after straightening the woman's knee, the patellar dislocation is reduced (goes back into place). to prevent future dislocation of the patella, what specific muscle should be targeted during rehabilitation?
which of the following statements is true regarding dimensional accuracy of gypsum products? group of answer choices plaster has the least amount of setting expansion. plaster has the least amount of setting contraction. high-strength stones have the least amount of setting expansion. high-strength stones have the least amount of setting contraction.
Statements that is true regarding dimensional accuracy of gypsum is that this products high-strength stones have the least amount of setting expansion.
Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the chemical formula CaSO 4·2H2O. It is widely mined and is used as a fertilizer and as the main constituent in many forms of plaster, blackboard or sidewalk chalk, and drywall.
High-strength stone is the strongest and most expensive gypsum products, and it is used mainly for making casts or dies for crown, bridge, and inlay fabrication. Gypsum is a pale, gray, veiled white with a red undertone.
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a construction worker fractured the right clavicle after a fall on the job and is on the rehabilitation unit working to regain full function of the right arm. which represents the best documentation of the evaluation of this client?
The best documentation of the evaluation of this client is Passive abduction with assistance p. 400
What is right clavicle?The clavicle is situated between the shoulder blade and the sternum, or ribcage (scapula). The bone that joins the arm to the body is this one. Several significant blood arteries and nerves are located above the collarbone. However, when a fracture takes place, these important structures are rarely harmed.A fracture, arthritis, a bone infection, or another condition connected to the position of your clavicle can all result in pain in the collarbone. Get to an emergency hospital if you get abrupt collarbone discomfort as a consequence of an accident, sports injury, or other trauma.Your relative should support the entire weight of your arm (so that you are not aiding the movement), then gently lift the arm to allow your shoulder to gradually rise to the desired range of motion. The arm should then be carefully lowered to its initial position.To learn more about right clavicle refer to:
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rem sleep is characterized by all of the following except group of answer choices regular breathing and pulse rate. relaxed muscle tone. beta waves. dreaming.
Answer: Regular breathing and pulse rate.
Explanation: When in R.E.M the heart rate and breathing increase.
jamie houser has been diagnosed with psoriasis. jamie presents today for a laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease; total area treated is 375 sq. cm. what is the correct code for this treatment?
The correct code for the treatment which involves Jamie having laser treatment for her inflammatory skin disease and the total area treated is 375 sq. cm is 96921 and is denoted as option C.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to as the process in which healthcare diagnosis and treatment are translated into numeric and alphanumeric characters. This is done so as to eliminate ambiguity which may cause errors by the professionals during different processes.
The CPT code for the laser treatment for inflammatory skin disease such as psoriasis is 96921 and in this scenario we were told that she went through laser treatment for the same medical condition which therefore means that the code which is 96921 is the same which is why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
A) 96913
B) 96920
C) 96921
D) 96922
a client will initiate dressing at the appropriate time of the day but will not attend to the day, temperature, or season. the client is able to don clothing slowly but has difficulty with fasteners or fails to see errors in the back (i.e., not tucking in the shirt). at what stage of the allen cognitive level screen is this client?
Chronic wounds place a significant strain on healthcare. Both the etiology of the wound and the best kinds of dressings to utilize should be properly understood by the practitioner. The practitioner's choice of dressings may be influenced by basic wound features. An essential step in promoting wound healing is determining the best dressings to use for a specific type of lesion.
Current Developments and Future Directions:Recent Developments: Scientists have worked to create wound dressings that are intended to maximize every stage of the healing process. Additionally, antimicrobial chemicals have been incorporated into dressings to target and kill infection-causing bacteria.
Critical Concerns: Because there are so many different wound dressings available, choosing one to use on a chronic condition can be difficult for the practitioner. Selecting the right dressing speeds up healing, offers affordable treatment, and enhances patient quality of life.
Future Directions: Through the use of moisture-retentive dressings, research into the mechanics of wound healing has improved our ability to heal chronic wounds more quickly. By adding tiny electrical sensors within the bandage, more recent dressings utilise nanotechnology. These dressings are designed to recognize changes in the environment around a wound and notify the patient or healthcare provider by changing the dressing's color or sending a message to a smartphone. More research is being done on how to make dressings with biologic components like stem cells.
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during a routine physical exam of a 90 year old woman, a low pitched diastolic murmur is auscultated. it is located on the fifth ics on the left side of the midclavicular line. what is the correct diagnosis?
During a routine physical exam of a 90 year old woman, a low pitched diastolic murmur is auscultated. It is located on the fifth ics on the left side of the midclavicular line. Mitral stenosis is the correct diagnosis.
What is Mitral stenosis?
Mitral valve stenosis, also known as mitral stenosis, is a narrowing of the valve between the two left heart chambers. Through the restricted valve, less or no blood reaches the main pumping chamber of the heart. The left ventricle, which is the term for the lower left heart chamber, serves as the heart's main pumping chamber.
Hence the correct answer is Mitral stenosis.
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the subjects in the low-carb diet group lost an average of 5.1 kg in a year. the subjects in the low-fat diet group lost an average of 3.1 kg. explain how this information would be consistent with the fact that weight loss in the two groups was not significantly different.
Even though in the given situation, the average weight loss of subjects in the low - carb diet group is more than the average weight loss of subjects in the low - fat diet group, the difference = 5.1 - 3.1 = 2 is not much more than natural variation which is unlikely to be due to chance, which can be proved by applying Independent Sample t test: obtaining the standardized t score for the difference and showing that the same is less than the critical t value for given significance level.
What is a low-carb diet considered?A low-carb diet typically has a daily carbohydrate allowance of 0.7 to 2 ounces (20 to 57 grams). 80 to 240 calories are produced by these carbohydrate levels. Some low-carb diets severely limit carbs during the initial period of the diet before progressively increasing the amount permitted.
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a pathologist is examining the brain of a recently deceased client who was thought to have developed alzheimer disease shortly before death. which pathology finding would confirm the diagnosis?
Alzheimer's illness was only confirmed after death when a microscope revealed plaques and tangles.
What is alzheimer?
A degenerative condition that impairs memory as well as other crucial brain functions over time. Memory and other essential mental abilities are eventually lost as a result of the degeneration and death of the connections between brain cells and the cells themselves.
The most prominent symptoms are a loss of memory and confusion. There is currently no known treatment for this condition; however, there are drugs and management measures that may temporarily ease symptoms.
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failure of the proximal end of the tunica vaginalis to close after the testis has entered the scrotum may be complicated by a condition called a/an .
Failure of the proximal end of the tunica vaginalis to close after the testis has entered the scrotum may be complicated by a condition called a/an. inguinal hernia.
An inguinal hernia takes place when tissue, including part of the intestine, protrudes through a weakness inside the stomach muscle groups. The ensuing bulge can be painful, particularly when you cough, bend over or carry a heavy object. but, many hernias do not cause pain. An inguinal hernia isn't always necessarily dangerous.
The tender tissue is regularly a part of the gut. it is smooth to look at and experience the bulge, although not all are visible by the patient, in particular whilst obese. symptoms include pain, mainly when someone coughs, bends, or lifts a heavy object. A remedy won't be necessary. If the hernia is growing or painful, a surgical operation can repair it.
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a physiotherapist is aware of the benefits of minimizing bed rest and is teaching a cardiac client's daughter about the rationale for early mobilization. which teaching point would the physiotherapist be unable to justify during his teaching?
The physiotherapist would be unable to justify that a bedridden person's heart beats faster than normal and can cause an elevated blood pressure.
A physiotherapist is someone who focuses on rehabilitation and prevention. He focuses on physical activities for prevention. If he has to instruct for a cardiac patient he would advise him to indulge in cardiac rehabilitation. This was the patient would be able to minimize the risks of cardiac problems like heart attack, heart failure, etc. If the person remains bedridden, he has a higher risk of increased blood pressure.
Cardiac rehabilitation is beneficial for anyone who has experienced a heart condition, such as a heart attack, heart failure, or heart surgery. Cardiac rehabilitation benefits both sexes, persons of all ages, and those who have mild, moderate, and severe heart conditions.
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which statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options? a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare. b. surgery might be appropriate for people with a bmi > 40 or >35 with other obesity-related health problems. c. surgery will only work for people proven to be able to achieve adequate weight loss with diet and exercise. d. in most cases, >75 percent of excess weight remains lost ten years after surgery.
a. contrary to popular belief, vitamin and mineral deficiencies after surgery are rare statement accurately describes bariatric surgery options
What is weight-loss surgery?Gastric bypass, sleeve gastrectomy, gastric band, and duodenal switch are among the bariatric surgery methods. Making alterations to your digestive tract is a component of bariatric surgery, which includes gastric bypass and other weight-loss procedures. When diet and exercise have failed or when you are experiencing major health issues as a result of your weight, bariatric surgery is performed. In the first 12 to 21 months following surgery, people who have gastric bypass experience fast weight loss. There are several causes for the quick weight reduction, including: not being allowed to eat for 24 to 48 hours. alterations to portion sizes when food is permitted
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which statement about medication and schizophrenia is the least accurate? a. medication is very helpful for some, moderately helpful for others, and ineffective for the remainder of those suffering from schizophrenia. b. the approaches to treating schizophrenia have vastly improved over the last several decades. c. medication can alleviate some problems, but it can also create new ones. d. medication is the only effective way to treat schizophrenia.
b. the approaches to treating schizophrenia have vastly improved over the last several decades about medication and schizophrenia is the least accurate
What carries out a schizophrenic?Less than one percent of Americans have schizophrenia, a long-term brain illness. Delusions, hallucinations, disordered speech, cognitive difficulties, and a lack of motivation are some of the symptoms of schizophrenia.
Typical categories for schizophrenia symptoms include: Positive symptoms include any alteration in behaviour or thinking, including hallucinations or delusions. Negative signs include persons who seem to retreat from their surroundings, show little interest in routine social contacts, and frequently come off as emotionless and flat.
The illness might cause a person to see or hear voices that others are unable to hear. They can think that others are attempting to harm them, reading their minds, or in some other way influencing their ideas.
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a 19-year-old man experienced direct trauma to his left elbow. your assessment reveals gross deformity and ecchymosis. his arm is pink and warm, and he has a strong radial pulse. your transport time to the hospital will be delayed. you should
Splint the elbow in the position found and ressess distal circulation.
Broken bones can also have oblique fractures. When one of your bones is fractured at an angle, they take place.
What kind of fracture crosses the bone at an angle and is often brought on by a direct or twisting force?
Broken bones can also have oblique fractures. When one of your bones is fractured at an angle, they take place. You may require surgery to fix the fracture, depending on which of your bones is broken and how it occurred.
The first clinical sign of compartment syndrome is pain with specific motions, especially passive stretching of the muscles. With active flexion, a patient could experience pain.
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a man with chronic alcoholism is diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ards) due to alcohol abuse. assessment findings include diffuse bilateral infiltrates of the lung tissue and marked hypoxemia. what is the primary physiologic change that results in ards?
The primary physiologic change that results in ards is disruption of the pulmonary capillary-alveolar membrane. Although the healthy lung effectively regulates alveolar fluid movement, disruption of the pulmonary capillary-alveolar membrane in ARDS results in the accumulation of excess interstitial and alveolar fluid. The consequences of these changes are decreased gas exchange, decreased compliance and increased pressure in the pulmonary artery.
What is an artery?Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the tissues of the body. Each artery is a muscular tube lined with smooth tissue that has three layers the intima, and an inner layer lined with asmooth tissue called the endothelium.
Arteries: These strong, muscular blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from your heart to your body. They can withstand a lot of force and pressure from your bloodstream, but they don't transport a large amount of blood.
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suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily malformations, short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor impairments. which drug would you suspect that the child's mother used during pregnancy?
You might guess that the mother of the child took alcohol when she was pregnant.
Is it safe to drink when pregnant?No. Despite the fact that having a glass of wine at dinner or a mug of beer with friends may seem harmless, there is no known "safe amount" of alcohol to take during pregnancy. Alcohol can have a significant negative impact on a fetus' development and is one of the primary causes of both physical and mental birth defects.
There is no level of alcohol consumption that is considered safe when trying to get pregnant or while you are already pregnant. Furthermore, drinking while expecting is never a good idea. The harmful consequences of drinking alcohol are the same for all alcoholic beverages, including all wines and beers. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) can be prevented if a newborn does not consume alcohol before birth.
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when using an aed, a. it is used simultaneously with cpr compressions. b. cpr can be terminated since it is of little value after the aed is attached. c. two aed chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs. d. it is important to plug the unit into the correct power source.
During the transmission of the electrical shock by an AED, the victim shouldn't be touched. Everyone will be told to stand clear by the AED. To make sure everyone is clear of the patient, you, as the operator, should reiterate this command.
What unique situations call for the use of an AED by rescuers?Children, people who are damp or moist, people who have a lot of hair, people who have a medicine patch, and people who have objects that could interfere with applying an AED are the most frequently encountered special considerations.
When performing CPR on a newborn or toddler with two rescuers, one person should apply chest compressions at a 15:2 ratio while the other maintains the airway open.
Call 9-1-1, run to the nearest AED, use it, and then perform CPR after the first shock when the AED instructs you to do so if you are aware that there is an AED in the building you are in or nearby (preferably within three minutes).
Utilizing an AED
1.Finish the CHECK and CALL procedures.
2.Once an AED is available, turn it on and listen to the audio instructions.
3.Take off your clothes and properly fasten the pads.
4.If necessary, attach the pad connector cord to the AED.
5.Get ready to let the AED examine the heartbeat.
Can a defibrillator be used without CPR?
When someone is having a cardiac arrest, a defibrillator should be used. Until you can access a defibrillator, CPR should be performed. Call 999, do CPR, and ask someone to locate a defibrillator if you notice someone having a cardiac arrest.
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in a given food fat such as flaxseed oil, the triglyceride contains exclusively one type of fatty acid (saturated or unsaturated). group of answer choices true false
Foods include a mixture of saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fatty acids, known as false fats. A particular triglyceride in a dietary fat, such as flaxseed oil, only includes one kind of fatty acid.
Various fatty acids, including monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, and saturated, make up the fats in diet. If most of the fatty acids in a dietary fat are saturated, the food fat is referred to as "saturated fat," whereas most unsaturated fatty acids are referred to as "unsaturated fat."
The dried, ripened seeds of the flaxseed oil are used to make linseed oil, also known as flaxseed oil or flax oil (in its edible form) (Linum usitatissimum). Pressing and sometimes solvent extraction are used to produce the flaxseed oil.
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a client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine. the nurse determines that the client understands important information about this medication if the client makes what statement?
Diphenoxylate - This is " An addictive component is present in this drug.”
What is diphenoxylate?
Diphenoxylate reduces gastrointestinal motility, which lessens diarrhea. Diphenoxylate exhibits chemical similarities with a number of opioids and has the potential to become addictive if used at dosages that are higher than those advised by a doctor. If the combination is administered at larger than usual doses, atropine will cause unpleasant side effects.
Diphenoxylate, an opioid of the phenylpiperidine family with central activity, is used in combination with atropine to treat diarrhea. When used with atropine, the opioid diphenoxylate slows intestinal contractions and prevents drug misuse and overdose.
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a client presents to the emergency department complaining of a dull, constant ache along the right costovertebral angle along with nausea and vomiting. the most likely cause of the client's symptoms is:
Renal calculi are the most likely source of the client's symptoms.
What is renal calculi?
The costovertebral angle typically feels dull and achy with renal calculi. Additionally, the patient could exhibit diaphoresis, pallor, and nausea and vomiting. The suprapubic region of the client with interstitial cystitis and an overextended bladder has dull, constant pain that gets worse when they urinate. The client additionally laments having an urgent urge to urinate and struggling to void. In addition to frequency, urgency, and dysuria, the client with acute prostatitis also complains of a sense of fullness in the perineum and vague back pain.
Hence the correct answer is renal calculi.
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bradley is an 8-month-old infant who has started eating complementary foods in addition to breastfeeding regularly. what foods should his mother feed him that will support his intake of zinc?
We may want to introduce complementary foods that are slightly coarser than strained pureed foods at around eight months. They are more difficult to chew than baby foods.
We can add soft foods like yogurt, oatmeal, mashed banana, mashed potatoes, or even thicker or lumpier pureed vegetables to your baby's diet. Along with grains and potatoes, make sure your baby gets vegetables and fruits, legumes and seeds, a little energy-rich oil or fat, and, most importantly, animal foods (dairy, eggs, meat, fish, and poultry) every day. Eating a variety of foods every day ensures that your baby gets all of the nutrients he requires. Whole nuts, seeds, corn chips, hard lollies, raw carrots, and apple chunks should be avoided.
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after extensive cardiac bypass surgery, a client returns to the intensive care unit on dobutamine, 5 mcg/kg/minute i.v. which classification best describes dobutamine?
The heart failure client's condition would best describes dobutamine benefit the most from an administration of dobutamine hydrochloride.
What is failure of heart?The heart failure has been known as the condition of the heart eventually becomes too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood adequately as a result of some heart disorders, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or excessive blood pressure and in this situation heart is failed to perform its function.
The congestive heart failure has been known as the heart failure, has a condition where the heart muscle has unable to pump blood as efficiently as it should. Shortness of breath is frequently brought on by this because blood frequently backs up and fluid can accumulate in the lungs.
Therefore, the heart failure client's condition would best describes dobutamine benefit the most from an administration of dobutamine hydrochloride.
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after a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism?
The quick movement of fluid from the blood vessels to the intestinal lumen due to a rapid stomach emptying and the development of a large osmotic gradient in the small intestine. Rapid gastric emptying, is a condition in which food passes through the stomach and into the duodenum too quickly. This is most likely to happen after a surgical procedure.
What is partial gastrectomy?
To treat stomach cancer and benign stomach tumors, a partial gastrectomy is a surgical treatment that involves removing a piece of the stomach. An oncologist who specializes in surgery performs a partial gastrectomy when it is done to treat stomach cancer (a surgeon who specializes in treating cancer).
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which of the following statements is true regarding breastfeeding? a. breastfeeding should be combined with formula for a balanced diet. b. breastfeeding helps increase spacing among siblings. c. breastfeeding has become less common in industrialized nations. d. breastfeeding is a reliable method of birth control.
The AAP suggests: For the first six months, just breastfeed. For the majority of infants, there is no need to introduce infant formula or other nourishment sources. Breastfeeding should be continued for another six months along with nourishing supplemental foods.
Can I give my baby both breast milk and formula?A few weeks may pass before you and your baby are comfortable and confident with nursing. It is typically possible to give your infant bottles of extracted milk or formula in addition to nursing after you both get the hang of it. Sometimes this is referred to as mixed or combination feeding.
Infants can distinguish between human and monkey faces at 6 months of age when it comes to processing species information from faces, but adults and 9-month-olds can only do it for human faces (Pascalis, de Haan & Nelson, 2002).
Why do pediatricians advise new mothers to breastfeed their infants, specifically? Infants that are breastfed grow weight and size more quickly. Which of the following is true for babies and solid foods? A baby should only be given one new solid food every week.
Babies that are breastfed are less likely to develop asthma, obesity, type 1 diabetes, and SIDS (SIDS). Babies who are breastfed are also less likely to get stomach illnesses and ear infections.
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conduct sanitation and inspection services; conduct communicable disease control programs; collect health statistics; and deliver maternal and child health services?
Collect health statistics implement epidemic control programs sanitation, sanitary engineering, and testing provide screening vaccination health education, and chronic disease control programs implement school health programs Provide hygiene and, in some cases, mental health services.
Passive Active and Symptomatic Surveillance. Passive surveillance is the most common form of surveillance and occurs when laboratories, doctors, or other healthcare providers routinely report cases or illnesses to local health departments.
According to these publications, local authorities are responsible for monitoring health problems and making available services to solve these problems. It provides basic tools for quantifying disease extent, patterns of change, and associated risk factors. Poor communication can lead to the perception that governments are unable to respond to outbreaks.
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according to the lecture notes for vitamins, in the beginning of the disney classic, peter pan, which vitamin (via cod liver oil) was wendy trying to provide her two brothers??
According to the lecture notes for vitamins, in the beginning of the disney classic, peter pan is Vitamin D.
What is Vitamin?
People require trace amounts of organic substances called vitamins. The body either doesn't produce vitamins or produces very little of them, so the majority of our vitamins must come from food. The needs for vitamins vary depending on the organism. For instance, while dogs can produce the all vitamin C they require, humans must obtain it through their diets. Vitamin D is not present in sufficient amounts in food for humans. The best source of vitamin D is sunlight exposure, which the body uses to synthesise the vitamin.
According to the lecture notes for vitamins, in the beginning of the Disney classic, peter pan, wendy was trying to provide vitamin D to her two brothers.
She was provide vitamin D via cod liver oil as it is source of omega 3 fatty acids and vitamin D along with vitamin A.
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a health care practitioner is applying ointment to the palm of a client's hand. what best describes the absorption rate of ointment applied to the palm of the hand?
It is advisable to think of the skin absorption rate of ointment applied to the palm of the hand as slower due to the thick and calloused skin. For a health care practitioner is applying ointment to the palm.
Substances can enter the body through the skin through a process called skin absorption. Dermal absorption is a method of medicine administration as well as a route of exposure for harmful compounds, along with inhalation, ingestion, and injection. The concentration of a substance, the length of contact, the solubility of the medication, the physical state of the skin and the exposed area of the body, and other factors all affect how well a substance is skin absorption through the skin.
Ointments are one such way of application. It is a composition with medicinal ingredients that can be rubbed on the skin or administered topically. These are called ointments.
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mrs. jones is scheduled to have a left hip replacement surgery in six weeks. she and her doctor have discussed using an autologous blood transfusion. what does this mean for mrs. jones?
The medical surgery is done to remove the damaged part or to make the body parts functional again if there is any problem in the proper functioning of the body.
What is blood transfusion?Mrs. Jones has an autologous blood transfusion. This means the individual's blood is used for the transmission. Mrs. Jones will receive her own blood that she has deposited before the surgery. After the surgery the same deposited blood is used in the blood transfusion.
If both of Mr Jone's parents were AB, then the possible blood types of their children would be AA, AB, and BB. This means that Mr Jones has a pure type B blood. Using the Punnett square to determine the possible blood type of their children.
Therefore, The medical surgery is done to remove the damaged part or to make the body parts functional again if there is any problem in the proper functioning of the body.
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a client with myasthenia gravis who has been taking pyridostigmine bromide for the treatment of the disorder comes to the emergency department complaining of severe muscle weakness, and cholinergic crisis is diagnosed. what muscles are involved first in a cholinergic crisis?
Muscles involved first in a cholinergic crisis are detrusor muscles.
What is myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is characterized by weakness and rapid fatigue of all muscles under voluntary control. It is caused by disruption of normal communication between nerves and muscles.
There is no cure for myasthenia gravis, but treatment can relieve signs and symptoms such as: B. Weakness of arm or leg muscles, double vision, drooping eyelids, difficulty in speaking, chewing, swallowing, or breathing.
Although the disease can affect people of all ages, it is most commonly seen in women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60.
People with myasthenia gravis are more likely to have the following medical conditions:
Hypothyroidism or overactivity. Located in the neck, the thyroid gland secretes hormones that regulate metabolism. If you have an underactive thyroid, you may have trouble coping with problems like colds and weight gain. Hyperthyroidism can make coping with fever, weight loss, and other problems difficult.Autoimmune diseases, People with myasthenia gravis are more likely to develop autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupusTo know more about myasthenia gravis visit:
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